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Exam Code: 3M0-211
Exam Name: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network?
(Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the
appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the
network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose
two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which three are advantages of using 3Com's XRN Distribution Resilient Routing
(DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast
routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60
seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table
to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the
router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 What is the benefit of using the Switch 40x0 Family's Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable
feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the
network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
manages Layer 2 switched links
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules
#2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose
four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire
chassis
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.10 Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on
the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800?
(Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues "globally" across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority
applications
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise
networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric
design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of
network attacks
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com
products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP
wiring
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Which two are functions of Switch 40x0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which component of XRN technology is defined as "A set of interconnected
switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link
Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or
Switch 40x0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor
higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40x0 family that provides additional
levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot
swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port
1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.19 Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the
network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the "display RIP-statistics" command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the "display RIP packet" command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP
updates
E. Use the "debugging RIP packet" command to check if the switch is sending/receiving
RIP updates
Answer: B,E

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NO.20 Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a
member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the "LA Master Port"?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2
Answer: B

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Exam Code: SCNP-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security exam)
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Total Q&A: 233 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to
evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the
following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.2 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.3 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory,
regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance
of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and
interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information
processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for
information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to
ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized
access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent
unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially
dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the
call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite
the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller
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C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk
asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming
from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's
configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover
to the new equipment.
Answer: D, E

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NO.5 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
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page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this
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A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP .
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which three statements concerning virtual servers are true? (Choose three.)
A.Virtual servers support session persistence.
B.Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypt SSL packets.
C.Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypted SSH packets.
D.Virtual servers can translate the virtual server address to a chosen pool member's address when
processing traffic.
Correct:A B D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000,
2400, and 5100.
Correct:D E

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NO.3 Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes
specified as "member" and "node"?
A.There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B.When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C.Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for
the "any" port.
D.When the load-balancing choice references "node", the address' parameters are used to make the
load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
Correct:D

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NO.4 What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP's management port?
A.192.168.1.245/16
B.192.168.1.245/24
C.192.168.245.245/16
D.192.168.245.245/24
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a
BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A.LDAP
B.OCSP
C.Radius
D.VASCO
E.Active Directory
Correct:A C E

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NO.6 A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured
with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can
affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis,
which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all
servers?
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A.serial console access
B.SSH access to the management port
C.SSH access to any of the switch ports
D.HTTP access to the management port
E.HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F.HTTPS access to the management port
G.HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Correct:A B F

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NO.8 Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)
A.ratio values
B.priority values
C.health monitors
D.connection limits
E.load-balancing mode
Correct:C E

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NO.9 A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.
Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning
traffic processed by the virtual server?
A.The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP
and server.
B.The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP
and server.
C.The TCP ports used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the TCP ports in the BIG-IP to
server connection.
D.The IP addresses used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the IP addresses in the
BIG-IP to server connection.
Correct:A

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A.the BIG-IP license
B.the BIG-IP log files
C.the BIG-IP host name
D.the BIG-IP administrative addresses
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Exam Name: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
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NO.1 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.3 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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NO.4 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.5 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.6 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.7 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.8 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

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NO.10 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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NO.11 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.12 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.14 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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NO.15 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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NO.16 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.18 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.19 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.20 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.1 You must design a backup solution for an existing Celerra NS80 customer. The customer has decided
that the expense of expanding their tape hardware infrastructure to support the additional load is not
justified because the data is for department-level user shares.
Which alternate solution should you use to back up the Celerra with minimal cost and disruption to their
current backup procedures?
A.Add an EMC Disk Library with 1 TB SATA drives
B.Add FC disks to the NS80 and back up using Celerra VTLUs
C.Add SATA disks to the NS80 and back up to disk
D.Add a second NS80 and replicate the backup data
Answer:C

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NO.2 In addition to "Software as a Service" and "Infrastructure as a Service," which main category of service
falls within the definition of cloud computing?
A.Platform as a Service
B.Hardware as a Service
C.VM as a Service
D.Facility as a Service
Answer:A

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NO.3 A customer has recently purchased Open Replicator and needs to know which GUI interface would be
best for administration.
What should be your response?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.SAN Advisor
C.Symmetrix Management Console
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
Answer:C

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NO.4 How often does SAN Advisor retrieve new information from EMC Ionix ControlCenter and identify
compliance violations?
A.Only when downloading the latest support information from an EMC website
B.Only when an alert has been triggered
C.Once per week
D.Once per day
Answer:D

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NO.5 A customer would like to eliminate tape from their backup environment. They do not have a SAN
infrastructure.
Which solution should you recommend?
A.EDL 4406
B.Symmetrix with SATA
C.CLARiiON CX with SATA
D.NS80 with internal VTLU
Answer:D

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NO.6 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site. They will be using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup
application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it
will eventually expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Remote Copy
B.RecoverPoint
C.Active Engine Failover
D.Virtual Tape Migration
Answer:A

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NO.7 You performed an analysis of the I/O profile of a SQL Server environment that has performance and
availability issues. Having identified disk contention as the primary problem, what would be your
recommendation?
A.Enable fast file initialization
B.Allocate additional spindles and migrate the transaction logs to the new RAID group
C.Move SQL transaction log and database files to the same RAID/disk group
D.Enable SQL Server to keep pages in memory
Answer:B

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NO.8 Your customer is experiencing performance issues with three CLARiiON-attached hosts and you've
already ruled out server hardware and network latency as possible causes. All of these hosts' LUNs are
part of the same RAID group, so you now need to determine which host's LUNs are causing the RAID
group's performance degradation.
Which Navisphere Analyzer data view would help you determine which LUNs are having the greatest
effect on the disks' performance?
A.Performance Detail line chart
B.LUN Performance Survey chart
C.I/O Distribution Size Detail chart
D.LUN I/O Disk Detail chart
Answer:D

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NO.9 A customer has implemented RecoverPoint to protect a Progress database and SQL Server as a
Federated database. Changes to the Progress database and SQL Server are asynchronously replicated
to the remote disaster recovery (DR) site.
What should be done to ensure consistent recovery at the DR site for this environment?
A.Put SQL Server and the Progress database briefly into a quiescent state before taking snapshots used
for recovery
B.Use the Write Ahead transaction Logging (WAL) mechanism on the Progress and SQL Server
databases
C.Use Peer To Peer Transactional Replication for both the SQL Server and Progress databases
D.Create periodic group set bookmarks to ensure that the two databases are periodically synchronized
Answer:A

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NO.10 A business is planning to migrate a physical, Oracle 11g database environment to a virtualized VMAX
platform.
What would be the primary benefit to the business if such a migration were implemented?
A.Migrating to new servers or new storage devices would enable the business to maintain 100% uptime.
B.Virtualization would enable multiple Oracle database environments to run under one instance.
C.VMAX configurations would provide auto back-end load balancing configurations for Oracle dbf files.
D.Virtualization on VMAX storage would automatically lay out database objects.
Answer:A

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NO.11 How does Atmos handle data protection?
A.SOAP
B.Replication
C.Rsync
D.REST
Answer:B

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NO.12 An organization currently uses a physical Storage Configuration Advisor (SCA) appliance to discover,
monitor, and report configuration compliance for 1,600 hosts. This number is expected to grow to 2,500 in
the near future. They would like to migrate this management function to virtual servers.
How many virtual SCA appliances are needed to meet this requirement?
A.5
B.3
C.4
D.2
Answer:C

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NO.13 A request has been made to collect the information that has been gathered by SAN Advisor. You notice
the data has not been collected.
In order for SAN Advisor to receive information about the environment, what service is used?
A.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter StorageScope Repository
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
Answer:D

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NO.14 A customer is looking for a best practice for a mission-critical Oracle application. They require a
point-in-time copy of their database for reporting in their Symmetrix environment. This point-in-time
environment must have no impact on production.
Which configuration would you recommend?
A.Synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R1s
B.Point-in-time clone off R1s, activated and mounted at the target
C.synchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time snap off the R1s
D.ynchronous R1 to R2; point-in-time clone off the R2s
Answer:D

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NO.15 You have been requested to provide a solution that will monitor resource best practices, create alerts
when the environment exceeds recommended boundaries, and requires no agents to be installed on the
network.
Which product will provide this capability?
A.Storage Configuration Advisor
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter
C.SAN Advisor
D.Storage Insight for Availability
Answer:A

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NO.16 You have been requested to create a SAN Advisor design that can accommodate 250 to 500 hosts.
Which component should be placed on its own dedicated host?
A.StorageScope Repository
B.EMC Ionix ControlCenter ECCAPI
D.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Repository
C.EMC Ionix ControlCenter Server
Answer:B

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NO.17 A SQL Server implementation has been experiencing poor I/O performance. You are asked to identify
the root cause of the performance issues.
Which tool should you use for your analysis?
A.SQL Server Profiler
B.SQL Server Configuration Manager
C.SQL Query Editor
D.SQL Server VDI
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which product delivers simple automation to enable end-to-end virtual-to-physical mapping of physical
storage and servers, as well as ESX servers and the virtual machines that reside on them?
A.Navisphere Manager
B.Navisphere Analyzer
C.VMware Server
D.vCenter Server
Answer:A

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NO.19 A customer uses an SCA appliance to provide environment discovery and compliance reports. The
current SCA implementation is experiencing workload issues due to the extremely large number of
objects being managed.
Which solution should you recommend to address this issue?
A.Increase the number of SCA external agents
B.Install an additional SCA appliance
C.Add an additional network interface to the SCA appliance
D.Increase the heap size on the EMC Ionix ControlCenter API server
Answer:B

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NO.20 A customer is implementing a new DMX-4 system in their data center. They have decided to use
Enterprise Flash Drive (EFD) technology in their design for their critical Oracle database.
Which database objects would gain the least benefit from EFDs?
A.High transaction rate table/index
B.Lookup tables
C.Index
D.Redo logs
Answer:D

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purchased Web Content Management (WCM) and does not want to incur any additional cost.
How can the customer meet these requirements with minimal effort?
A. create user accounts for their clients in the repository and expose Webtop outside the firewall with
"read" permission on the documents for the clients
B. use WebPublisher and Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide
their clients access to the website
C. use Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients
access to the website
D. create a customization to run a nightly job to extract documents out of the repository and copy them to
a website, and provide their clients access to the website
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of
content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author
content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development
of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should
also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for
web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.3 An Enterprise Architect (EA) who has no knowledge on Documentum proposes a distributed
architecture for a Document and Process Management solution. The architect suggests creating web
services using SOAP 1.2 and JAX-WS, a Data Access Layer with POJO objects using Documentum
Foundation Classes (DFC) and Documentum Repository. The EA believes that this architecture will yield
better performance for large content transfer, and the ability to replace Documentum with any Content
Management Solution (CMS) without much impact on the system.
As a Documentum application architect, you need to validate and provide input on this architecture. You
must consider that the system must have reusable components and reduce development time.
What should you do?
A. approve the proposed architecture because the EA has overall knowledge about the enterprise
B. recommend building a custom solution with DFC and no web services, because DFC will give much
better performance
C. recommend using DFS and extending it as needed
D. recommend building web services using the REST framework and DFC to access the Documentum
Repository
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder
through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change
security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types.
They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using
Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are designing a Documentum application for managing project documents. When a new project is
initiated, the system should automatically create a folder for the project and populate it with 5 sub-folders
for the project phases and the appropriate document templates within each phase folder
Which approach meets these requirements with minimal effort?
A. construct a Smart Container with folders and document templates
B. define a relationship object for folders and document templates
C. create a Virtual Document for document templates and relationship for folders
D. customize Webtop to set up project folder structure
Answer: A

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NO.6 In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content
Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

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NO.7 The type hierarchy that is shown has only custom attributes displayed.
The following DQL statement is executed:
select
r_object_id
, object_name
, c_channel
from
c_product
where
datediff(week, r_creation_date, date(today)) <= 1
How many table joins would the query cause in the database when executed as a superuser?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer wants to maintain the annual financial reports using a Documentum Content Management
System. Different parts of the document must be authored and reviewed by different people and individual
parts of the document must be combined in a particular order to form the final PDF document.
What is useful for implementing the solution?
A. PDF Annotations Services and relationship objects
B. Smart Containers and Content Transformation Services (CTS)
C. Virtual Document and Advanced Document Transformation Services (ADTS)
D. XML applications and Media Transformation Services (MTS)
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company requires that when an article document is saved it should inherit certain attributes from the
folder it is stored into.
How should you design this solution?
A. create a custom TBO that overrides the doSave method of the folder object, so that when documents
are saved in it, their attributes are updated with the folder's attributes
B. create a relation between the folder and the document type with cascade update property set and add
the attributes to be inherited
C. create a Smart Container for the folder with a member relationship for the document and add the
attributes to be inherited
D. create a method that is scheduled as a job to update newly saved article documents.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products
contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by
Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

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NO.11 An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The
company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to
be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need
to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

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NO.12 In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content
Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services
(ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are designing the data model for a retailer's catalog application. A description of all products for
sale will be stored in the Documentum repository. There are thousands of different types of products.
Each product may have a unique set of attributes. Users should be able to add or remove attributes from
a product definition at runtime.
Which approach should you use to provide the required flexibility in data types, and also provide good
query performance when searching for product information?
A. You create a type called product that contains all common attributes and attach and detach attribute
aspects as required. For searching, you use the TRY_FTDQL_FIRST DQL hint.
B. You use XML content stored in an XML store, add and remove attributes by modifying the XML content,
and use IDfXQuery to search for product information.
C. You use lightweight objects with the parent object containing common attribute values. Parent objects
are created for each product description. For searching, you use NOFTDQL queries.
D. You create a standard object type hierarchy and issue alter type statements, as needed, to modify
types at runtime. For searching, you use FTDQL queries.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer is planning to build a WebPublisher template with product name and product description
elements. When a user enters the values for the product name and product description fields in the
content, the product name value from the content needs to be copied to the keyword attribute.
Which solution meets this requirement with minimal effort?
A. customize WebPublisher WDK component to update attribute values upon saving of documents
B. create a TBO to update attribute values upon saving of documents
C. create an XML application to update attribute values from document content
D. create a custom SBO application and invoke it on document save.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and
ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

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NO.16 A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use
Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have
been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a
centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is
required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for
chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store
for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application
for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a
configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

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NO.17 A financial institution requests an SOA-enabled account opening process solution and has the
following requirements:
-robust workflow capability with support for high-fidelity forms
-simple and configurable transaction centric interface
-seamless integration with their Global Account Management System
Which solution meets the customer's requirements while minimizing the development effort?
A. TaskSpace, Process Suite, and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
B. Webtop, Adobe Forms Designer, and Process Suite
C. a custom solution with SOA -enabled Business Process Manager (BPM)
D. eRoom, Process Suite and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer needs a solution to address a heavy volume case management requirement. All of the
content attached to the cases are media files (audio/video). The key requirements are to have a simple
interface focusing on core functionality, which is case processing. The customer also needs the ability for
the case reviewer to see all information in a single screen, including the file attached to the case.
In addition to Process Suite, which solution would you recommend?
A. TaskSpace and Document Image Services
B. Digital Asset Manager (DAM)
C. customized TaskSpace
D. custom interface
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company's infrastructure architect advises that tiered
storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has
enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect's recommendation
can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

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NO.20 A pharmaceutical company wants to implement a records management program that is cost effective.
The company needs a solution that provides the following capabilities:
- ability to classify records
- ability to apply retention on records
- ability to dispose records
- ability to hold records from disposition
Which Documentum product provides these capabilities and minimizes licensing costs?
A. Records Manager Administrator (RMA)
B. Records Manager (RM)
C. Retention Policy Services (RPS)
D. Physical Records Manager (PRM)
Answer: C

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NO.21 A customer needs to secure and preserve the authenticity of PDF documents by applying an
electronic signature. All the PDF documents need to be identified by a unique reference corresponding to
their department and function, and the reference must be system-generated. A notification system is
required to alert the consumer of the documents for them to read and agree upon. If the consumer rejects
the document, they should be able to select the appropriate reason for rejection.
Which product will implement the above functionality?
A. Records Manager (RM)
B. TaskSpace and Adobe Forms
C. Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM)
D. Information Rights Manager (IRM)
Answer: C

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NO.22 You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to
reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

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NO.23 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32)
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and four DB views
D. two DB tables and two DB views
Answer: C

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NO.24 A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided
to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their
users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer's
requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

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NO.25 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32) repeating
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and two DB views
D. two DB tables and four DB views
Answer: D

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NO.26 An engineer designs the data model that is shown for a shipping application in a repository that does
not have fulltext search enabled.
It is required that a query returns all shipping_transaction documents, shipped on a given shipping_date,
with a particular shipping_code.
Querying with either shipping_code or shipping_date alone would return hundreds of thousands of
objects. Querying on both shipping_date and shipping_code, returns a selective set of objects.
Given the example query:
select r_object_id, customer_id, shipping_date
from shipping_transaction
where na_specific_data.shipping_code=4267.86
and shipping_date = date('11/25/2008')
Which statement is true about use of aspects in this scenario?
A. It will cause a DQL parser error, because it is NOT possible to include both aspect and standard
attributes within the same query.
B. It will improve query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
C. It will degrade query response time, because a database index on the combination of attributes that
make the query selective CANNOT be created.
D. It will degrade query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
Answer: C

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NO.27 A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for
integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their
Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user
interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend
a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer's needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High
Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation
Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and
TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process
Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.28 You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves
searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical
report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

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NO.29 A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum
installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and
the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the
remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

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NO.30 A law firm that handles a large volume of cases requires a system that meets the following
requirements:
-provides a central location to create, store and manage documents
-tracks discussions on a case and advice given
-protects the content of files sent to co-counsels and clients
Which solution meets the law firm's requirements?
A. Knowledge Worker solution and Information Rights Manager (IRM) Services
B. Transactional Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Interactive Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
D. Knowledge Worker solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
Answer: A

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