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Exam Code: E22-250
Exam Name: EMC (Network Management - Smarts Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 174 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.2 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

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NO.6 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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NO.7 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.8 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

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NO.11 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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NO.14 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.15 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

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NO.16 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

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NO.17 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.18 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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NO.20 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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Exam Code: E20-465
Exam Name: EMC (Content Management System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 169 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 After installing the Content Server, you change the default passphrase.
What utility script must be run when the Content Server is restarted?
A. dm_check_password
B. dm_crypto_boot
C. dm_crypto_create
D. dm_change_password
Answer: B

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NO.2 A repository has an installation owner account 'dmadmin' and a repository owner account 'sop.'
What is the difference between these two accounts?
A. The Documentum installation owner and the repository owner accounts have identical roles.
B. The Documentum installation owner is a regular user in a repository; the repository owner has
administrative rights over the repository.
C. The Documentum installation owner is a superuser in the repository; the repository owner account
owns the database tables used by the repository.
D. While both users have administration privileges, the installation owner owns the repository database
tables.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do you delete a repository?
A. use Documentum Administrator to delete the files used for the repository's tablespaces
B. use Documentum Server Manager
C. select Configuration > Repository option in Documentum Administrator
D. use any database utility to drop the tablespaces used by the repository
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the minimum prerequisite components for a Documentum Administrator installation on a
dedicated application server host?
A. database client, application server, and Java SDK
B. application server, Java SDK, and web server
C. application server and Java SDK
D. application server, Java SDK, PHP, and Perl
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the minimal user account settings and access rights needed by the designated BOF Global
Registry user?
A. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder in the
repository.
B. The user has an OS or Directory Server account and has READ only access to the
/System/Modules/SBO folder in the repository.
C. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder and
the folders/documents in the repository that will be accessed using SBOs.
D. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the entire repository.
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the configuration of a repository you provide the following information: repository ID, repository
name, and database owner.
Where does Documentum store this information?
A. dfc.properties
B. server.ini
C. [repository name].ini
D. docbroker.ini
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which user account will be used when running the Repository Configuration program?
A. superuser
B. installation owner
C. web user
D. database user
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the Consistency Checker?
A. to check for object corruption within the repository and provide a report
B. to check and correct object corruption within the repository and provide a report
C. to check the file stores for corruption and provide a report
D. to check the repository for corruption, fix the problem, and provide a report
Answer: A

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NO.9 When installing the Content Server, the installer deploys several default services which run on the
Java Method Server.
Which services are deployed?
A. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS), Documentum
Messaging Services (DMS)
B. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
C. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Messaging Services (DMS), Documentum
Foundation Services (DFS)
D. Documentum Foundation Services (DFS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS)
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which specific directories do the DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM environment variables represent in
a Content Server installation with one or more repositories?
A. DM_HOME is the base directory for all Content Server binaries and repository configurations;
DOCUMENTUM is the working directory used by server processes.
B. DM_HOME is the directory for the Content Server binaries; DOCUMENTUM is the base directory
under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored.
C. DM_HOME is the base directory under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored;
DOCUMENTUM is the directory for the Content Server binaries.
D. DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM have the same value and point to the base directory for all server
binaries and repository configurations.
Answer: B

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NO.11 When using a resource agent to view a log, which option CANNOT be used to sort the log entries?
A. Log level
B. Event type
C. Severity
D. From the first entry to the last entry
Answer: B

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NO.12 By default, what is stored specifically in the DOCUMENTUM\dba\secure directory?
A. keystore(s) for certificates used by LDAP over SSL
B. encrypted database user passwords for repository owners
C. encrypted passphrase for the Content Server installation
D. keystores used for Trusted Content Services
Answer: C

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NO.13 A user has left your company. There is an object that is still checked out by that user.
How would you remove the lock from this document?
A. delete the user using Documentum Administrator and all the documents checked out to this user will
automatically have the lock removed
B. change the r_lock_owner attribute of the document to "dmadmin"; dmadmin will now own the
document and can cancel checkout
C. unlock the document using the API
D. check the document in using a superuser account
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement is FALSE regarding resource agents?
A. Resource agents allow you to specify a minimum log level to view.
B. Resource agents allow you to change configuration settings.
C. Resource agents provide another way to receive notifications.
D. Resource agents cannot execute operations.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is a resource agent?
A. It is a JMX-based monitoring tool that is accessible using Documentum Administrator.
B. It is a feature of Application Builder, used to help manage lifecycles.
C. It is a process used in conjunction with the Index Server to provide full-text indexing.
D. It is a feature of WDK which allows administrators to more easily deploy components given to them by
a developer.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A user is not able to create a document in a repository.
How do you diagnose the problem?
A. check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory and check for sufficient database space
B. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient database space
C. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory
D. check that the server log is not full
Answer: B

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NO.17 What must exist in an API script to dump your repository?
A. dump,c,dmr_content
B. dump,c,dmr_containment
C. create,c,dmi_dump_object_record
D. create,c,dm_dump_record
Answer: D

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NO.18 In addition to a supported OS, what is the minimal requirement for a successful Content Server
installation and repository configuration?
A. database software and Java SDK
B. Java SDK
C. database software, Java SDK, and application server
D. database software
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the correct API syntax for retrieving the r_object_id of a dm_document with the name, 'test1'?
A. retrieve,c,dm_folder where object_name='test1'
B. id,c,select dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
C. retrieve,c,select dm_document where object_name='test1'
D. id,c,dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
Answer: D

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NO.20 Your repository dump has just completed. <DUMP_RECORD_OBJECT_ID> is the object id of your
dm_dump_record.
Which DQL statement would you run to determine how many repository objects were copied into your
dump file?
A. select count(*) from dmi_dump_object_record where dump_object =
'<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
B. select count(*) from dm_sysobject where r_object_id in (select <DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID> from
dm_dump_record)
C. select count(*) from dm_dump_record where dump_object = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
D. select count(*) from dmr_content where r_object_id = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-517
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
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Total Q&A: 192 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

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NO.2 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.6 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.8 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.11 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.12 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.13 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.14 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.15 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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Exam Code: E22-192
Exam Name: EMC (Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An Administrator receives new system requirements where the barcode contains multiple lines of data.
Which filter is used to read the barcode.?
A. Extended Bar Code Detection
B. Patch Code Detection
C. Bar Code Detection
D. Postal Bar Code Detection
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is required to synchronize the InputAccel Server to the InputAccel Database when moving the
database onto a new machine?
A. Reinstall ODBC Component
B. Reinstall InputAccel Server Component
C. Run Data Access Layer registration utility
D. Restart InputAccel service
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Developer modifies an IPP that was generated by CaptureFlow Designer.
Where can the IPP be maintained going forward?
A. CaptureFlow Designer
B. Dispatcher Manager
C. Process Developer
D. Free Form Designer
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which steps are required to upgrade an InputAccel process to use replaced modules when migrating
from InputAccel 5.3 to 6.x?
No additional steps are required to migrate processes
A. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Recompile
Reinstall"
B. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Include new MDF files
Modify to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
C. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Add prepare routines for all new modules
Set manual retriggering
Include new MDF files
Modify IPP to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is one virtualization product that is compatible with InputAccel?
A. VirtualBox
B. XenServer
C. Hyper-V
D. OracleVM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which component is required to run a report?
A. VBA code
B. Stored procedure
C. Client-Side Scripting
D. IPP code
Answer: B

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NO.7 System requirements have been verified and InputAccel is ready to be installed. What is the correct
order of items to be installed?
A. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
Dispatcher for InputAccel client modules"
B. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Web Services
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
C. 1. InputAccel Server
InputAccel Database
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
D. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Email import module supports POP3, POP3 SSL, and which other email protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. HTTP
C. MIME
D. MAPI
Answer: A

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NO.9 A Developer needs to create a database query that will execute after the end user populates a field.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure a new log rule for the IndexPlus module to query the database.
B. Configure IndexPlus to make the database call.
C. Code a database query in IPP code's IndexPlus Finish event
D. Code a database query using Client-Side Scripting with IndexPlus
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which module is used to automatically identify templates defined in a Dispatcher project?
A. Dispatcher manager
B. Classification Edit
C. Classification
D. Validation
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer is required to send (and not return) InputAccel data to an external system via Web
Services.
Which component is responsible for this exchange of information?
A. Web Services Output
B. Web Services Coordinator
C. Web Services Hosting
D. Web Services Export
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which module enables end users to perform quality assurance on scanned images and document
assembly?
A. IndexPlus
B. Image Enhancement
C. RescanPlus
D. NuanceOCR
Answer: C

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NO.13 An Administrator reinstalls the InputAccel Server on new hardware after a disastrous hardware failure.
The Administrator uses the original CAF and LIC files from eighteen months ago to activate and license
the new server.
Why will this result in a non-functioning server?
A. The original CAF file contains invalid EnterBy dates
B. The original CAF file cannot be used on different hardware
C. The original LIC file cannot be used on different hardware
D. The original LIC file contains invalid EnterBy dates
Answer: B

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NO.14 In efforts to tighten InputAccel security, the Administrator is creating a new Supervisor role. The
Supervisor role should have access to the Administration Console and should be able to run client
modules.
What needs to be applied to the new Supervisor role?
A. Role members
B. Windows users and groups
C. Permissions
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Answer: C

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NO.15 An end user needs to export a batch from the InputAccel Server using a system that does not have
client modules installed.
Which mechanism can be used to export the batch to a different directory as a zip archived file?
A. IACopy
B. Multi-Directory Watch
C. File System Export
D. Administration Console
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-690
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

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NO.2 What protocols does the Data Mover support.?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Answer: A

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NO.3 What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: C

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

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NO.6 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is DM 3 located?
A. Location 6
B. Location 5
C. Location 7
D. Location 10
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX
storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± SAS o r t w en t -five 3.5" EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± EFD , SAS o r t w en t -five 2.5" SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± FC , EFD o r t w en t -five .2.5" SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± EFD , FC o r t w en t -five 2.5 ± EFD d i sk d ri ves
Answer: B

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is located in location 3?
A. CS 1
B. CS 0
C. DAE 0
D. DAE 1
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

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NO.14 A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are
running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be
used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

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Exam Name: EMC (Isilon Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
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Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are reviewing an opportunity with a trusted advisor. You both discover gaps in the initial
solution design.
Each iterative discussion with the customer helps you define the solution better. The documents
produced capture the customer's requirements.
What else needs to occur to refine the sizing considerations?
A. Complete your Solution Design Document and forward to EMC consulting.
B. Validate the Workflow Profile Assessment and test the solution against your findings.
C. Review you assumptions and ask the customer what business issue you're solving.
D. Provide the CIO with the findings and gain commitment to a Proof of Concept.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You set up a meeting to gather information on a new project with the IT manager and plan to
use a workflow profile assessment (WPA) to document the requirements.
Why is it recommended to talk to as many stakeholders as possible?
A. Completing this document gives sales a list of who the stakeholders are at customer site.
B. Helps downstream personnel, such as implementation and delivery, to have a clearer
understanding of the requirements.
C. Using workflow profile enables sales to take this information to EMC consulting for review to
validate the configuration.
D. Using the WPA tool will give you the best "big picture" to see things such as block size, de-dupe,
file size and volumes.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What key considerations should be kept in mind when designing a 300TB solution?
A.Workflow management Defining class of service Time of day services RPO and RTO Data retention
and backup
B.Defining class of service Time of day services ROI and TCO Data retention and backup
C.SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots Space for snapshots
D.Always include 2% SSD SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots InsightIQ
Answer: A

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NO.4 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What applications access this storage?
B. What type of racks are in your datacenter?
C. Are you using a KVM to access your storage?
D. How many NICs do your clients have?
Answer: A

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NO.5 When designing Isilon solutions, what issues should you pay special attention to?
A.Avoid being too enthusiastic over the technology Balance technical and business requirements
Provide options Design to meet customer expectations
B.Workflow Document Solutions Document Application types Data strategy
C.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Provide options Practical vs.
theoretical implementations
D.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Downstream hand-off Design
to meet customer expectations
Answer: A

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NO.6 When designing Isilon solutions, which issue should you pay special attention to?
A. Create a workflow document
B. Conduct stakeholder interviews
C. Follow all SSD sizing rules
D. Meet customer expectations
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have had several discussions with your customer in the processor design industry. They
have stated that they want a Scale-Out NAS platform for their design environment. Their most
significant responses were "We have 125 design engineers accessing large diagrams and we need
high throughput to support them. Can we also get the highest performance available? We need to
stay ahead of our competitors." Other areas you discussed were their data retention policies and
workflow after the chip design is completed. They plan to archive the design files but the files must
stay on line.
What is your initial node recommendation?
A. A-Series nodes for the active diagrams and X-Series nodes for the archives.
B. S-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL Series nodes for the archives
C. X-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL 400 nodes for the archives
D. X-Series nodes with SSD for the active diagrams and NL nodes for the archives
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer purchased an Isilon cluster with eight X400 nodes for Home Directories. Your
follow-up discussions have uncovered an opportunity to expand the cluster to support the Legal
Department. As you prepare to complete the Workflow Profile Document, you meet with the
customer to discuss data protection.
Which key areas should you address?
A.Default cluster protection level Additional directory level protections Snapshots and replication
B.WORM requirements Network ports for replication Snapshots for user restores
C.Default cluster protection level Backup windows and processes Concurrency of user access
D.Protocols (SMB, NFS, FTP , HTTP , HDFS) Authentication and Directory Services Performance and
latency concerns
Answer: A

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NO.9 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What application are you using to create directories?
B. Is your datacenter ISO9001 compliant?
C. What protocols are accessing your NAS?
D. How many users are in your Directory Services?
Answer: C

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NO.10 When conducting high-level interviews with stakeholders of a project, what are the key
questions that should be asked?
A.How much usable storage are you looking for? What client OS will access this storage? Which
applications will access this storage?
B.Which backup application is in use today?
What is your change rate?
How many clients will connect to the cluster?
C.What does your network architecture look like?
Do you have existing NAS infrastructure?
Do you have 10Gb or 1Gb ethernet?
Which applications will access this storage?
D.Who are the application owners?
How much usable storage is needed?
What applications will be accessing the storage?
How many users are in your Active Directory?
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E22-315
Exam Name: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

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NO.5 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

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NO.11 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

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NO.14 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

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NO.16 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

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NO.18 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

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NO.20 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

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