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Exam Code: EX0-113
Exam Name: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.5 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ITSM20F
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000 (ITSM20F.EN))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.2 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.3 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.5 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.6 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.7 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.8 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.9 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SCNP-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security exam)
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Total Q&A: 233 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially
dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the
call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite
the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller
asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk
asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming
from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's
configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover
to the new equipment.
Answer: D, E

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NO.2 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to
evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the
following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.3 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.4 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single
page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this
user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP .
Answer: A

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NO.5 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory,
regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance
of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and
interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information
processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for
information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to
ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized
access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent
unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 2B0-202
Exam Name: Enterasys Networks (ES NetSight Atlas)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What service must be running to save a configuration?
A. TFTP
B. BOOTP
C. SNMP trapd
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Device Manager provides all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Graphic representation of a device
B. Configuration file upload/download
C. System level configuration
D. Broadcast Suppression configuration
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Firmware Upgrade Wizard allows you to enter a reset delay time for devices that
support timed reset. How can you reset devices that do not support timed reset?
A. You cannot reset devices that do not support timed reset.
B. After selecting the devices in the table, click Start to initiate manual resets.
C. It is necessary to walk to the device to initiate a reset.
D. After closing the Firmware Upgrade Wizard, you open the Manual Device Reset
Wizard.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What benefits are gained with SNMPv3?
A. Better error codes
B. Encrypted messages
C. Fast table retrieval
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Goto symbol is used as a navigational tool to jump to another map.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which RMON groups are accessible from the Device Manager?
A. Alarm and Event
B. Host and Matrix
C. Statistics and History
D. Filter and Capture
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following configuration files can you view while comparing archives in
Inventory Manager?
A. All archived configuration files
B. Only files in which a difference in configurations is found
C. All archived database files
D. A and C
Answer: B

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NO.8 With SNMPv3, the message is encrypted
A. to prevent disclosure of sensitive information while en route
B. to make sure the user has permission to access the device
C. to verify the message was not modified en route
D. to read or to modify subsets of the target data
E. Both A and C
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the context of Policy Manager, a Role is a
A. Feature set that is assigned after authentication exchange and the port is available
B. Feature used to assign access control and/or class of service to network traffic based
on its OSI layer
C. Feature used to enforce the default role on a port
D. Feature used to combine classification rules to implement permission and denial to
network resources
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following actions can Atlas Console initiate when certain alarms, events or
traps occur on the network?
A. Send an e-mail notification and then shut down Atlas Console
B. Send an e-mail notification or run a program
C. Write the event log to an HTML file for web-based viewing
D. Run a program or shut down Atlas Console
E. A and C only
Answer: B

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Exam Name: EMC (Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

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NO.5 What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to
complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

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NO.11 What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit.
Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port
7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a
failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to
see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

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NO.14 How do the EMC Disk Library DL4x06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application
catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

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NO.16 An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file
type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a
backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

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NO.18 A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What
should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk
Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A
small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually
expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery
site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

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NO.20 In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-329
Exam Name: EMC (Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 206 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

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NO.2 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

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NO.3 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

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NO.7 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

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NO.8 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

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NO.9 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

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NO.10 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.3 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.4 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.6 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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NO.7 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.8 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.10 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.12 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.13 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.14 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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