2014年2月1日星期六

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Exam Code: CUR-008
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cúram V6, Development)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 If process class MySubProcess is a subclass of MyProcess and the required implementation
classes
exist, which of the following statements are true?
A. curam.intf.MySubProcess extends curam.intf.MyProcess
B. curam.base.MySubProcess extends curam.impl.MyProcess
C. curam.base.MySubProcess extends curam.base.MyProcess
D. curam.fact.MySubProcessFactory extends curam.fact.MyProcessFactory
E. curam.impl.MySubProcess implements curam.base.MySubProcess
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 An application's Server Components folder contains the following components: Appeals, core,
custom,
ISScreening, and ServicePlanning.
The SERVER_COMPONENT_ORDER variable is set as follows:
SERVER_COMPONENT_ORDER=custom, ServicePlanning.
Which of the following statements BEST reflects the order of priority (decreasing priority left to
right) in
which the generators will process the components?
A. custom, ServicePlanning, core
B. custom, ServicePlanning
C. custom, ServicePlanning, Appeals, core, ISScreening
D. custom, ServicePlanning, Appeals, ISScreening, core
E. Appeals, custom, ISScreening, ServicePlanning, core
Answer: D

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NO.3 Suppose that a new Process class has been created in a model and a build generated
command is
performed.
What needs to be done next?
A. Implement the methods in the generated impl version of the class.
B. Copy the generated impl class from the build/svr/gen/temp folder into the impl package.
C. Create a new class in the impl package.
D. Implement the modeled methods in the base class.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about the extension class EntityExtension that extends the
entity
class Entity is true.?
A. The generator produces a new Java class curam.struct.EntityExtensionDtls containing any new or
overridden attributes, as well as the attributes remaining from curam.struct.EntityDtls.
B. The generator produces a new Java class curam.struct.EntityExtensionDtls containing any new or
overridden attributes.
C. The generator produces no new Java classes, but replaces curam.struct.EntityDtls with a new
version
containing the new or overridden attributes, as well as any others remaining from the original
Entity.
D. The generator produces a new curam.intf.EntityExtension class containing the method signatures
of
curam.intf.Entity, as well as any new or overridden methods.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Review the Screenshot presented.
What type of application navigation element can be expected to correspond with the element
highlighted
by the red box?
A. Selection
B. Menu
C. Tab
D. Navigation
E. Shortcut-Tab
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with AIX Sales Professional - v2)
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NO.1 Workload Partitions (WPAR) are included in which of the following?
A. AIX
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Express or Standard
Answer: B

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NO.2 IBM Smart Analytics are often compared to Oracle Exadata. Which of the following are
advantages of the IBM solution?
A. IBM Smart Analytics may cost more money, but provides better warranty and support.
B. IBM Smart Analytics uses shared disk RAC which is a highly suitable shared architecture.
C. IBM Smart Analytics has lower cost, better availability, greater capacity and higher
performance.
D. IBM Smart Analytics is highly customizable, flexible and open to various Data Warehouse and
Business Intelligence solution packages.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following describes the vision of "Power your planet" ?
A. Virtualization systems, energy efficiency metrics, business resiliency and availability, lowered
total cost of acquisition
B. End-to-end, fully integrated enterprise solutions with 99.999 reliability spanning the full software
development and information lifecycle.
C. Powerful IBM Software to optimize threading, POWER-based IBM hardware for increased
performance, knowledgeable IBM Services to mask technical complexities
D. Workload-optimizing systems, virtualization without limits, resiliency without downtime, dynamic
energy optimization, management with automation and integrated value
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a reason to partner with IBM Global Financing when selling Power
Systems solutions?
A. IGF provides easier credit.
B. IGF offers lower lease and finance rates.
C. It increases odds to win the business.
D. It reduces the cost of the system to the customer.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is an integrated service management platform with network, servers,
storage, software and quick start services to provide fastest private cloud deployment?
A. IBM PowerHA Cloudburst
B. IBM PureScale Cloud Offering
C. WebSphere Cloudburst Appliance
D. IBM Cloudburst on Power Systems
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following allows running AIX and Linux Partitions to migrate between systems?
A. Micro-partitioning
B. PowerHA System Mirror
C. Dynamic Logical Partitioning
D. PowerVM Live Partition Mobility
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following enables inter-partition Ethernet connections without physical
adapters?
A. Virtual Ethernet
B. Multiport PCI-X Adapter
C. Integrated Ethernet Adapter
D. Integrated Virtual Ethernet
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which product is used to dynamically allocate memory from a shared pool to a partition based
on
different workload peaks?
A. AIX Workload Partitions
B. IBM Cloudburst Appliance
C. PowerVM Active Memory Sharing
D. PowerVM Live Partition Mobility
Answer: D

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NO.9 POWER7 EnergyScale enhancements include which of the following?
A. Static Power Save and Dynamic Power Save
B. Soft Power Cap and TPMD Hardware on all Power 7 Systems
C. Power and Thermal Trending data collection from consumption, inlet and exhaust temp
D. TPMD Hardware on all POWER7 Systems, Processor Sleep, Performance Aware Memory
Throttling
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is the correct definition of the term "HOT ADD" ?
A. Install new I/O to the system while it is powered on.
B. Install new CEC Hardware to the system while it is powered on.
C. Repair the CEC hardware while the system is powered on.
D. Exchange hardware to increase system capacity while the system is powered on.
Answer: B

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Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 How do you add RSA model report templates?
A. update your RSA install via the Rational Product Updater
B. create a new RSA plug-in that extends the reporting capabilities
C. add a new report template to the project that contains the model
D. create a new report template and add its corresponding report format entry in the
reports.manifest file
in the reporting plug-in
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true about Browse diagrams?
A. Browse diagrams are saved as .brx files.
B. You can change the layout of a Browse diagram.
C. Browse diagrams show all the elements of a given package.
D. Browse diagrams are driven by parameters and filters that you control.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about models and UML projects?
A. A UML project can only contain a single model.
B. Each UML project must contain a blank model.
C. A UML project can contain any number of models.
D. Models can only be added when the UML project is created.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which support does RSA provide for RAS artifacts? (Choose three.)
A. imports RAS artifacts
B. browses RAS repositories
C. converts RAS assets into zip files
D. creates and packages RAS artifacts
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Deployment Models?
A. Deployment Models are not supported in Rational Software Architect.
B. The Enterprise IT Design Model template includes a Deployment Model.
C. Deployment diagrams can be added to model templates to form Deployment Models.
D. The Deployment Model template and Analysis Model template both contain Deployment
Models.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Topic diagrams are defined based on _____.
A. design patterns
B. model templates
C. architectural discovery
D. a key model element and its relationships
Answer: D

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NO.7 To facilitate modeling, reusable assets can be used to share _____. (Choose four.)
A. profiles
B. models
C. patterns
D. transformations
E. JAVA test scripts
Answer: ABCD

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NO.8 What indicates the level at which a model can be partitioned?
A. Class
B. Method
C. Diagram
D. Package
Answer: D

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NO.9 In RSA, which type of combined fragment is used in sequence diagrams to show the
details of how one
object messages another?
A. optional fragment
B. messaging fragment
C. interaction use fragment
D. nested sequence fragment
Answer: C

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NO.10 When should you consider partitioning a model into multiple files? (Choose two.)
A. when the model file becomes larger that 1 MB
B. when there are more than 10 packages in a model
C. when there are relationships to elements in more than one reference model
D. when the size or packaging structure of the model becomes unmanageable
Answer: AD

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NO.1 Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. The interface should have a clear purpose.
B. A single interface should include as many possible methods, if not all methods, that may
be shared by
objects that implement the interface.
C. An interface should be used to restrict which methods are exposed to a client.
D. Classes may have multiple interfaces depending on the purpose of each interface it
implements.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose
three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system. Which area of
focus is
essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely
surviving
intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and
attribute types
before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which
allows users to
define the systems look and feel
Answer: A

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NO.7 An architect looks at two classes. The first class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(),getTotal(), and findAverage(). The second class has the following
operations:
getName(),getSize(), findAverage(), findMinimum(), and findMaximum(). The two classes
share the same
superclass. Which operations are most likely contained in the superclass?
A. getName(), getSize(), and findAverage()
B. findMaximum(), findMinimum(), getSize(), and getTotal()
C. getName(), findAverage(), and findMaximum()
D. getName(), getSize(), getTotal(), and findAverage()
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts
Answer: D

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NO.1 After 30 minutes your scan stops with an out-of-session error.
What is a possible cause of this error?
A. Redundant path limit was too low.
B. A parameter was not tracked.
C. Flash parsing was turned off.
D. Platform authentication was not configured.
Answer: B

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NO.2 How does an attacker exploit Web application vulnerabilities?
A. by hacking the firewall
B. by installing viruses on a users machine
C. by sending malicious HTTP requests
D. by sniffing the traffic between a user and the Web server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be
accessible (e.g. *.bak,
"Copy of", *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does a Cross-site Scripting vulnerability allow an attacker to do?
A. execute a malicious script on the Web server
B. change the Web server configuration
C. steal a users session tokens
D. drop database tables
Answer: C

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NO.5 In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2140-046
Exam Name: IBM (DOORS V9)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor
requirements
gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements
Management
tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the
module? (Choose
two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: C2090-543
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9.7 Application Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 You have created a stored procedure (MULTIRESULTS()) on the server which will
return multiple result
sets. While developing a PHP application using the IBM_DB2 extension, you want to call the
stored
procedure. The code shown below will execute the stored procedure:
$stmt = db2_exec($conn, 'CALL multiResults()');
How can you fetch all of the result sets from $stmt?
A. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for the first result set; call db2_next_result($stmt) for more
result sets.
B. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set.
C. Call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each result set.
D. Call db2_next_result($stmt) for each result set; call db2_fetch_object($stmt) for each row
in the result
set.
Answer: A

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NO.2 User USER1 successfully creates a table USER1.TABLE1 and successfully creates a
package
USER1.PKG1 for an application containing the SQL shown below:
EXEC SQL UPDATE user1.table1 SET col1 = :hvar1 WHERE col1 IS NULL
Assuming user USER2 can connect to the database, but has no other relevant authorities,
which
command must user USER1 issue to permit user USER2 to run the application?
A. GRANT ALTER ON TABLE user1.table1 TO USER user2
B. GRANT EXECUTE ON PACKAGE user1.pkg1 TO USER user2
C. GRANT UPDATE ON TABLE user1.table1 TO USER user2
D. GRANT BIND ON PACKAGE user1.pkg1 TO USER user2
Answer: B

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NO.3 The statement below was used to create a cursor named CSR1:
DECLARE csr1 DYNAMIC SCROLL CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee;
After fetching all of the rows in the result set associated with cursor CSR1, which two
statements can be
used to fetch the data starting at the end of the result set? (Choose two.)
A. FETCH LAST
B. FETCH PRIOR
C. FETCH RELATIVE
D. FETCH OFFSET
Answer: BC

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NO.4 An existing table has the definition shown below:
CREATE TABLE hr.employees (
empid INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
deptno INTEGER,
authid VARCHAR(255),
salary DECIMAL (10,2),
commission DECIMAL (5,3) DEFAULT 0,
benefits XML )
Only members of the HR_ADMIN group have privilege to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or
DELETE from
the HR.EMPLOYEES table. A Web-based application is under development that connects to
the
database with a user's AUTHID and enables a user to see their record. No other records are
visible.
Which type of database object can be created by a member of the HR_ADMIN that provides
the
necessary information without changing the privileges on the HR.EMPLOYEES table?
A. trigger
B. view
C. alias
D. index
Answer: B

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NO.5 The table shown below exists in the database:
CREATE TABLE team.workitems ( priority INTEGER, last_update TIMESTAMP, details XML
)
User USER1 has CREATEIN authority on the TEAM schema and can SELECT from the
TEAM.WORKITEMS table. An SQL routine is created that performs a positioned update
using a cursor
declared as shown below:
DECLARE c_workitem CURSOR FOR SELECT priority, last_update FROM team.workitems
FOR
UPDATE;
Which additional privilege is required?
A. EXECUTE privilege on TEAM schema
B. ALTER privilege on TEAM.WORKITEMS table
C. BINDADD privilege on TEAM schema
D. UPDATE privilege on TEAM.WORKITEMS table
Answer: D

IBM   C2090-543   C2090-543 practice questions

NO.6 Which SQL procedure will retrieve all the rows from table T1 and make those rows
available to the
invoker as a result set?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
SELECT * FROM t1
B. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT * FROM t1;
OPEN c1;
END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
RETURN (SELECT * FROM t1)
D. CREATE PROCEDURE proc1()
DYNAMIC RESULTS SET 1
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM t1;
RETURN c1;
END
Answer: B

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NO.7 The table shown below contains a large number of financial transactions:
CREATE TABLE webstore.transactions (
transaction_id INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
order_date TIMESTAMP NOT NULL,
shipped_date TIMESTAMP,
customer_id INTEGER NOT NULL,
shipping_info XML NOT NULL,
billing_info XML NOT NULL,
invoice XML NOT NULL )
Only members of the AUDIT_TEAM group have SELECT privilege on the
WEBSTORE.TRANSACTIONS
table. For appropriate supply-chain management, members of the INVENTORY_CONTROL
group need
to see the INVOICE document for each transaction that has a NULL SHIPPED_DATE, but
are restricted
from seeing any shipping or billing information.
Which database object can a member of the AUDIT_TEAM group create to enable the
INVENTORY_CONTROL group to access the information needed from
WEBSTORE.TRANSACTIONS?
A. alias
B. sequence
C. trigger
D. view
Answer: D

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NO.8 An application must insert values into a column that has a TIMESTAMP data type.
What is a valid string representation of a TIMESTAMP?
A. 2009.08.07.12.22.22.0000
B. 2009-08-07 12:22:22.0000
C. 07/08/2009-12:22:22:0000
D. 07-08-2009 12.22.22.0000
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE store(sid INTEGER, info XML);
INSERT INTO store VALUES (1,
'<storeinfo sid="1">
<name>Grocery A</name>
<items>
<fruit><name>Mango</name><price>1.20</price></fruit>
<fruit><name>Apple</name><price>0.50</price></fruit>
<dessert><name>Ice Cream</name><price>6.00</price></dessert>
</items>
</storeinfo>');
Given the statements shown in the exhibit, a user executes the query shown below:
XQUERY for $store in db2-fn:xmlcolumn('STORE.INFO')/storeinfo
let $items := $store/items/fruit, $count := fn:count($items)
return <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
What is the output?
A. 2
B. <itemcount>2</itemcount>
C. <itemcount>1</itemcount>
D. <itemcount>$count</itemcount>
Answer: D

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NO.10 A database contains a table and a view declared as shown below:
CREATE TABLE s1.t1 ( c1 INTEGER, c2 CHAR(20) );
CREATE VIEW s1.v1 AS SELECT * FROM s1.t1;
A system administrator successfully executes the following code:
GRANT CONNECT, IMPLICIT_SCHEMA ON DATABASE TO user1;
GRANT INSERT ON TABLE s1.t1 TO user1;
GRANT CONTROL ON s1.v1 TO user1;
Which SQL statement does user USER1 have privileges to execute?
A. UPDATE s1.t1 SET c1 = 2 WHERE c1 IS NULL
B. CREATE VIEW user1.v2 AS SELECT * FROM s1.v1
C. CREATE PUBLIC ALIAS a1 FOR s1.v1
D. SELECT * FROM s1.t1 WHERE c2 < 100
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which object can be created to group together related procedures and user-defined
functions that are
used for tax calculations?
A. collection
B. module
C. routine
D. routine space
Answer: B

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NO.12 For which two database objects can an ALIAS be created? (Choose two.)
A. schema
B. trigger
C. sequence
D. module
Answer: CD

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NO.13 In a query, which clause can reference a CLOB data type?
A. an ORDER BY clause
B. a GROUP BY clause
C. a WHERE clause
D. a DISTINCT clause
Answer: C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE FUNCTION deptemployees (idept VARCHAR(3))
RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
firstname VARCHAR(12),
lastname VARCHAR(15))
LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA
NO EXTERNAL ACTION
DETERMINISTIC
RETURN
SELECT empno, firstnme, lastname
FROM employee
WHERE workdept = deptemployees.idept;
Referring to the exhibit, what contains the proper way to invoke the DEPTEMPLOYEES()
user-defined
function to return all of the employees that work in department D11?
A. SELECT * FROM TABLE(deptemployees('D11'))
B. SELECT * FROM deptemployees('D11')
C. SELECT * FROM deptemployees('D11') AS D11dept
D. SELECT * FROM TABLE(deptemployees('D11')) AS D11dept
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which condition will prevent a developer from using the DB2 Call Level Interface in an
application?
A. The developer must control the cursor names to comply with company naming standards.
B. An SQL precompiler is not available to the developer.
C. The application must create an external scalar function with the CREATE FUNCTION
statement.
D. The DECLARE CURSOR statement needs to be used.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE s1.mytab (
col1 INTEGER GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY,
col2 INTEGER,
col3 INTEGER,
CHECK (col1+col3 < 500)
)
CREATE VARIABLE s1.var1 INTEGER DEFAULT (99)
CREATE FUNCTION s1.add100 (p1 INT, p2 INT)
RETURNS INTEGER
LANGUAGE SQL
DETERMINISTIC
NOT FENCED
BEGIN
SET p1= p2+100;
RETURN p1;
END
Given the table, variable, and function definitions shown in the exhibit, which two statements
contain a
valid invocation of the add100 function? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT col1, outcol=add100(col2,col3) FROM mytab
B. SET var1 = ABS(add100(1,99))
C. SELECT col1, add100(col2,col3) AS outcol FROM mytab
D. SELECT outcol.* FROM TABLE(add100(col2,col3)) AS outcol
Answer: BC

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NO.17 You have set your data types as CHAR(10), VARCHAR(20). Given the operation
shown below:
CHAR(10) UNION VARCHAR(20)
What will be the final data type?
A. CHAR(200)
B. VARCHAR(30)
C. VARCHAR(20)
D. CHAR(30)
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which object can be invoked on a single invocation to return both output parameters
and a result set
back to the invoking application?
A. procedure
B. module
C. table function
D. method
Answer: A

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NO.19 A database contains two tables with the same definition and authorities:
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA
and TEST.SALESDATA. The PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table contains business-critical
information
that is constantly changing; the TEST.SALESDATA table contains a snapshot of the
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table. Business rules require that applications under
development access
the TEST.SALESDATA table until ready for deployment. Once an application is deployed, it
accesses the
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA table.
Which object can be used to simplify switching between the TEST.SALESDATA and
PRODUCTION.SALESDATA tables without having to re-code the application?
A. trigger
B. procedure
C. alias
D. sequence
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statement is true of an application that only uses static SQL?
A. The authorization ID of program creator is used to qualify explicitly qualified table
references on a
DROP statement.
B. Static SQL uses SQLDA to determine the number of rows successfully fetched on a
FETCH statement.
C. The authorization ID of application creator is used to qualify implicitly qualified view
references on an
UPDATE statement.
D. The authorization ID of application invoker used by DB2 to perform authorization checking
of an
embedded OPEN statement during execution.
Answer: C

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