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Exam Code: C2050-724
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0, System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 An administrator needs to configure attributes that are synchronized between the
LDAP server and the
IBM WebSphere Commerce database. To do so, the administrator needs to edit:
A. vmmTasks.xml
B. ldapentry.xml
C. enableldap.xml
D. LdapConfig.properties
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator notices database update errors during WebSphere Commerce fix
pack installation.
To troubleshoot the issue, the administrator needs to check:
A. db2diag.log
B. Jdbcerr.log
C. updatelog.txt
D. updatedb-instance.log
Answer: D

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NO.3 Initial troubleshooting has indicated the initial heap size needs to be adjusted. For
performance analysis,
how should the administrator set the heap sizes?
A. The initial and maximum heap sizes should be equal.
B. The initial heap size is less than maximum heap size.
C. The initial heap size 128MB and maximum heap size 256MB.
D. The initial heap size 64MB and the maximum heap size 512MB
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator is configuring JVM heap settings for WebSphere Commerce in a 64
bit environment.
As a starting value, the administrator plans to set the following: Minimum Nursery size: 512
MB Maximum
nursery size: 1024 MB What JVM parameters does the administrator need to add, to enable
these values?
A. -Xlp512M -Xlp1024M
B. -Xmn512M -Xmx1024M
C. -Xmns512m -Xmnx1024m
D. -Xmnys512MB -Xmnyx1024MB
Answer: C

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NO.5 If error notification is enabled, what is the source of the notifications?
A. ECTrace
B. ECMessage
C. Log Analyzer
D. Logging Toolkit
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator is creating several user accounts with passwords. What hashing
scheme is used to
protect the contents of the password?
A. AHS-2
B. PCI-3
C. RPC-1
D. SHA-1
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator is configuring a company's IBM WebSphere Commerce site to
implement the
Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS) requirement to protect
cardholder data. A
decision has been made to prevent storing of the card security code in the database. What
action does
the administrator need to take?
A. Set neverPersist to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
B. Set systemEditable to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
C. Set systemEditable to true in PaymentMethodConfigurations.xml.
D. Set removeAfterApproval to true in PaymentSystemPluginMapping.xml.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator just installed WebSphere Commerce and published a B2C store.
However, the
performance of the store is poor. How must the administrator customize the default
installation
configuration to improve the site performance?
A. Enable disk offload.
B. Enable Dynamic caching.
C. Increase the number of cache entries.
D. Update cachespec.xml for the store.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The IBM WebSphere Commerce site is running on a single tier. What task should the
administrator
have performed to prevent a total database failure?
A. Reduce database traffic.
B. Setup Database Replication
C. Setup Staging server to copy the production data.
D. Federate WebSphere Commerce instance into WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator needs to delete all processed sale transactions that are older than 90
days. Which
command does the administrator need to use on the demo instance?
A. dbclean -object order -type completed -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
B. dbclean -object order -type obsolete -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
C. dbclean -object catentry -type completed -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
D. dbclean -object catentry -type obsolete -instancexml
WebSphere/Commerce/instances/demo/xml/demo.xml -days 90
Answer: A

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NO.11 Users are complaining that the online store is slow. An administrator investigates and
concludes there is
a performance hit due to secondary log usage. The following information is gathered from a
snapshot:
Maximum secondary log space used (Bytes) = 2048 Secondary logs allocated currently = 2
The following
information is gathered from the database configuration: Log file size (4KB) (LOGFILSIZ) =
1000 Number
of primary log files (LOGPRIMARY) = 4 Number of secondary log files (LOGSECOND) = 3
Which
command will MOST likely improve the performance?
A. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGSECOND 2
B. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGSECOND 8
C. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGPRIMARY 2
D. db2 update db cfg for mall using LOGPRIMARY 8
Answer: D

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NO.12 The WebSphere Commerce Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) module has
been disabled.
The administrator can enable the WebSphere Commerce PMI module from the:
A. Tivoli Performance Viewer
B. PMI > server1 > Runtime.
C. WebSphere Commerce configuration file.
D. WebSphere Commerce Administrative Console > Monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.13 An administrator needs to install an interim fix to the WebSphere Commerce
application which is in a
clustered environment. The administrator wants the application to be available for requests
during the
update. What does the administrator need to do?
A. Roll out the update.
B. Perform a silent update with response file.
C. Update the single deployment manager node.
D. Perform an interactive installation using installation manager.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The administrator needs to protect access to system resources such as file I/O and
sockets. How does
the administrator accomplish this?
A. Enable Java 2 security.
B. Enable application security.
C. Enable administrative security.
D. Enable administrative and application security.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A sports retailer interested in IBM WebSphere Commerce has a large customer
service department.
They are interested in using IBM Sales Center for IBM WebSphere Commerce. Which
editions of IBM
WebSphere Commerce allow them to do so?
A. Enterprise and Professional
B. Enterprise and Developer Express
C. Express and Professional
D. Express and Developer Professional
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator is notified that a site-level scheduled job failed. The administrator
queries the
SCHACTIVE table and sees that the SCSSTATE column for the job has a status of RF. What
does the
administrator need to do?
A. Restart the job.
B. Wait for the job status to be updated.
C. Verify that the JVM process in the SCSQUEUE column is running.
D. Validate the check task command assigned to the scheduled job exists.
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator needs a store organization structure which contains a Root
organization, Default
organization, Seller organization, and B2C organization. The administrator can obtain this
organization
structure by publishing a:
A. supply chain store.
B. demand chain store.
C. extended sites store.
D. consumer direct store.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator is loading access control policy data. The file the administrator has
updated is
defaultAccessControlPolicies.xml. The administrator notices after loading the access control
policy that
the main access control policy is missing. Which utility does the administrator need to run?
A. acpload
B. dataload
C. acugload
D. acpnlsload
Answer: A

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NO.19 An administrator needs to convert an existing WebSphere Commerce instance into a
federated
environment. How does the administrator federate the WebSphere Commerce application
server into the
deployment manager cell?
A. Run WC_installdir/bin/config_ant.sh -DinstanceName=instance_name ReconfigureCell
B. Run WC_profiledir/bin/addNode.sh deployment_manager_host_name SOAP_port -
includeapps.
C. Run WAS_installdir/bin/configureweb_server_name.sh -user configAdminUser -password
configAdminPassword.
D. In WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment Administration Console > Servers
>
WebServers, select webserver1 and click Generate Plug-in.
Answer: B

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NO.20 The IBM WebSphere Commerce instance has business audit functionality enabled.
What does the
administrator need to do to view a business audit report?
A. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Accelerator, select Store > Monitoring > Business
Audit.
B. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Accelerator, select Store > Operations > Operational
Reports.
C. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Administration Console, select Site > Monitoring >
Business Audit.
D. In the IBM WebSphere Commerce Administration Console, select Store > Monitoring >
Business Audit.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C6040-753
Exam Name: IBM (Retail Store Solutions - 4690 Technical Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 To load a PXE terminal, which service must be running on a store controller?
A. RMA
B. RTU
C. RPL
D. DHCP
Answer: D

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NO.2 A support plan should include support procedures for handling in-store problems. What
are two
recommendations for getting assistance with operational or technical problems that cannot
be handled by
store management.? (Choose two.)
A. call IBM Techline
B. call the hardware service provider
C. call the store chain designated help desk
D. call IBM/Business Partner technical support
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A customer asks if it is possible to update BIOS settings on their registers remotely.
Which utility is used
to remotely update the BIOS settings on registers?
A. Remote Operator
B. Remote Terminal Utility
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Remote Auxiliary Console
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is indicated when a terminal is stopped with Z001?
A. There is a hard disk problem.
B. The terminal application is failing.
C. The terminal number has not been set.
D. The terminal is not configured in the 4690 system.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The retailer is a grocery store with a pharmacy inside the store. They want to send
transaction data to
the insurance companies on a real-time basis to gain the benefits of faster reimbursement.
Which IBM
product is the best choice?
A. ICESoft Browser
B. Store Integrator GUI (SIGUI)
C. Remote Management Agent (RMA)
D. Data Integration Facility (DIF)
Answer: D

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NO.6 A potential 4690 customer has a requirement to implement a cost effective POS
solution based on
their specific budget. The customer asks to see the list prices of all software that would be
included in the
proposal. Which two IBM resources contain list prices for POS software? (Choose two.)
A. IBMLink
B. IBM sales manual
C. IBM e-Config tool
D. IBM Knowledgebase
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 The retailer wants to do check imaging. Which IBM 4610 SureMark printer model
should they use?
A. TI4
B. TI9
C. 2CR
D. TM6
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the name of the logical filename required for each controller on the network to
be able to run
Remote Management Agent?
A. RMAHOST
B. RMAAGENT
C. HOSTNAME
D. RMAMASTER
E. HOSTAGENT
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer has defined the user logical name ITEMFILE in the controller configuration
as
ADXLXAAN::ADX_IDT1:ITEMFILE.DAT. What logical name can you use to access the local
copy of the
file?
A. $TEMFILE
B. %TEMFILE
C. %ITEMFILE
D. $ITEMFILE
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which approach is the recommended first step when installing a new release of the
4690 operating
system?
A. install software at the store
B. install software at a test site
C. install software in the store via Remote Operator
D. send the installation files down to the store from the host
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Analytics Product Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 LanguageWare Resources includes the following, EXCEPT for _________________
A. Parsing rules.
B. Dictionaries.
C. Correlation.
D. Break rules.
E. Character rules.
Answer: C

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NO.2 ICA provides a software component that enables users to search multiple repositories
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query and view only the documents that they are allowed to see without requiring a Single
Sign-ON (SSO)
policy. What is this component called?
A. Real time natural language processing API.
B. REST APIs.
C. Identity management API.
D. Plug-in APIs.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Regarding Field filters, which of the following statements is FALSE.?
A. You can change field values to all lowercase or all uppercase.
B. Field filters can map, split, trim or replace strings within field values.
C. If multiple field filters exist for a given search field, the parser applies the newest filter first.
D. Field filters require a condition to be met.
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Exam Code: C2040-920
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebShpere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)
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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production
environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the
installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during
the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.3 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different
windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative
Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager
Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the
administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to
propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal
installation
Answer: C

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NO.5 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of
WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster
configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration
types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance
criteria
Answer: C

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NO.6 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company
internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing
content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the
best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to
replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP
support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.7 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory
Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate,
certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct
user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere
Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

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NO.9 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which
multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct
user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs
and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.10 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by
administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.11 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company.
If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster
with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal
cluster
Answer: B

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NO.12 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps
that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for
each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete
the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed
node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each
node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user
registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine
tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.13 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as
a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a
WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,
create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the
following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a
two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory,
and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log
in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory
servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and
the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or
customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in
a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for
their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of
the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of
the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of
the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal
server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be
able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical
clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources;
horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering
takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system;
horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical
clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.1 An enterprise wants to take advantage of cloud computing but retain control over the
construction and
delivery of all cloud-based services. Which cloud deployment model will meet their needs?
A. hybrid cloud
B. private cloud
C. community cloud
D. public shared cloud
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two key infrastructure components for data migration when planning a move
to cloud?
(Choose two.)
A. storage
B. network
C. monitoring
D. data mining
E. high availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which IBM product implements metering capabilities?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring
B. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C. IBM Tivoli System Automation
D. IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two methods that address both network infrastructure security and
performance for a cloud
computing environment? (Choose two.)
A. encryption (SSL)
B. limiting network hops
C. network load balancing
D. denial of service prevention
E. intrusion detection and prevention
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which characteristic best describe the difference between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and
cloud computing?
A. pay per use model
B. shared computing resources
C. SOA exists within the firewall
D. leverage IT resources on demand
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which technology is used in certain IBM WebSphere DataPower appliances to provide
identity
verification of public cloud endpoints and to securely transmit encrypted data between
enterprise
endpoints and public cloud endpoints in an integrated cloud environment?
A. IBM Tivoli CloudBurst Appliance
B. WebSphere CloudBurst Appliance
C. WebSphere DataPower Secure Communicator
D. WebSphere DataPower Secure Cloud Connector
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a critical and unique component during the design and planning process for a
cloud service?
A. IT Service availability
B. Business Service availability
C. IT Infrastructure/Component availability
D. IT Service and Infrastructure/Component availability
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company is setting up a cloud environment to host several of their applications.
These applications
vary in importance and the company wants to ensure that the most business critical
applications get the
most resource. Which solution will help achieve this goal?
A. WebSphere eXtreme Scale
B. WebSphere Business Events
C. WebSphere Virtual Enterprise
D. WebSphere Business Monitor
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the collection and control point for alerts?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Console
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two optimized workload characteristics supported by the IBM cloud
portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. analytics
B. tightly-coupled
C. centralized message bus
D. high-performance computing
E. structured related data model
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which component is necessary to view monitoring reports for IBM Service Delivery
Manager?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
B. Tivoli Service Request Manager
C. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
D. WebSphere Administrative Console
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which storage infrastructure function provides benefit for public cloud computing?
A. metadata
B. multipath I/O
C. clustered trivial database
D. real time storage management
Answer: C

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NO.13 Cloud architectures designed for service delivery and availability of services are
extremely important.
How is software failure within a cloud infrastructure environment handled? (Choose two.)
A. replace the failed node
B. restart the software image
C. use elastic IP addresses for consistent and re-mappable routes
D. allow the state of the system to re-sync by reloading messages from queues
E. design services with proper real time disaster recovery and stateful user context
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 A company hosts office applications on a stand alone server in their data center. A
recent spike in
demand for one of their applications resulted in the denial of access to some potential users.
Which
characteristic of the cloud service delivery model would meet the fluctuating demands of the
company's
users?
A. service ubiquity
B. service elasticity
C. self-service access
D. usage-based billing
Answer: B

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NO.15 A cloud infrastructure should be architected to accommodate which technical risks?
A. overflowing network buffers resulting in loss of data
B. termination of service by an internet service provider
C. fiber cable damage causing a failover to copper channels
D. unauthorized configuration changes to storage network devices
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which term is used to describe a hypervisor running multiple operating systems
simultaneously.?
A. full virtualization
B. paravirtualization
C. partial virtualization
D. nested virtualization
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which area of the current IT enterprise availability and redundancy components must
be addressed in
order to move to a cloud operational model?
A. server capacity to service capacity
B. workload availability to service availability
C. application availability to workload availability
D. server mean time between failures (MTBF) to service MTBF
Answer: C

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NO.18 A customer wants to implement a private cloud solution and they are anticipating
changes in their
current virtualization operational model. Which virtualization configuration characteristic is
affected by the
implementation of cloud infrastructure?
A. higher latency
B. lower server utilization
C. higher demand/transient use
D. easier dependency/user management
Answer: C

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NO.19 A cloud service vendor provides business services such as human resources and
payroll processing.
They use Web interfaces on a shared infrastructure providing multi-tenant services without
the need to
manage or control the underlying resources. What type of cloud service is this company
providing?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are two considerations before moving data to a public cloud? (Choose two.)
A. A company must restructure all data to accommodate a public cloud data model.
B. A company should analyze all legal and regulatory issues that pertain to the data.
C. A company can safely assume that cloud services will replicate and backup all of their
data.
D. A company should encrypt all data so that they do not have to analyze legal and
regulatory issues.
E. A company should analyze data structure to see if they can take advantage of public cloud
data
models.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: A2090-558
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NO.1 Which of the following is true about system catalog tables access?
A. Only user informix can read system catalog tables
B. Only system administrators can read system catalog tables
C. Only database administrators can read system catalog tables
D. Any user that can connect to the database can read system catalog tables
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) locking row".
B. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock level row".
C. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock mode row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create table t1(c1 int)".
E. Set the environment variable DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW before executing "create table t1(c1
int)".
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to reduce disk I/O
B. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
C. to increase concurrency among multiple users on the same table
D. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
Answer: C

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NO.4 When restoring data, which granularity of object may NOT be restored?
A. a single table
B. a single chunk
C. a single dbspace
D. an entire instance
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given INFORMIXCONTIME = 60 and INFORMIXCONRETRY = 3, if the initial connection attempt fails,
what subsequent attempts will be made to connect?
A. 60 and 120 seconds before aborting
B. Every 3 minutes within one hour before aborting
C. Every 3 seconds within one hour before aborting
D. Wait indefinitely until it is successfully completed
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two system level databases? (Choose two.)
A. sysperf
B. sysadmin
C. sysmaster
D. sysmonitor
E. sysscheduler
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 You have a database server environment where all databases use buffered logging. In which two
conditions are the logical-log buffers in shared memory flushed to the logical log on disk? (Choose two.)
A. When the buffer is full.
B. When a checkpoint occurs.
C. When a user issues a begin work.
D. When a user commits the transaction.
E. When a user rolls back the transaction.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which two of the following are required for creating a dbspace? (Choose two.)
A. a mirror chunk
B. two or more chunks
C. a cooked file or raw device
D. a file owned by root or administrator
E. dbspace name containing only letters, digits, underscores, or $ characters.
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 Which Informix data movement utilities listed below can be used to move database from a computer
running Windows operating system to an Apple computer?
A. ontape
B. onunload and onload
C. ifxsend and ifxreceive
D. dbexport and dbimport
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which command would you execute to restore to a specific moment-in-time.?
A. onbar -t timestamp
B. onbar -r -log lognum
C. onbar -r -t timestamp
D. onbar -r -l timestamp
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which isolation level is appropriate if you do not want your query to place any locks?
A. Dirty Read
B. Cursor Stability
C. Committed Read
D. Repeatable Read
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command option should be used to resume an interrupted onbar restore?
A. -RETRY
B. -RESTART
C. -REINTIIALZE
D. -BEGIN_AGAIN
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two operations are performed with the onspaces command? (Choose two.)
A. Add space to the server.
B. Compress server space.
C. Encrypt the server space.
D. Remove space from the server.
E. Restrict access to the server space.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 You want to use sqlhosts file /newlocation/newsqlhosts. Which of the following is true?
A. sqlhosts file must be called sqlhosts
B. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/sqlhosts
C. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/newsqlhosts
D. sqlhosts file must be defined under $INFORMIXDIR/etc/ directory
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which utility can be used to relocate the physical log to a new dbspace?
A. onlog
B. ontape
C. onspaces
D. onparams
Answer: D

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NO.16 How can you determine which databases are created in an instance?
A. use dbschema utility
B. inspect ONCONFIG file
C. List reserved pages with oncheck -pr
D. run SELECT name FROM sysmaster:sysdatabases
Answer: D

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NO.17 A progammer wants to unload a table to a file inside a stored procedure. What functionality listed
below will help the programmer accomplish the task?
A. dbload
B. dbexport
C. external table
D. SQL unload statement
Answer: C

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator created a table using the SQL statement shown in the exhibit to perform a load operation
every day at 11:00 AM. What is the best way to optimize a backup strategy to recover the client table in
case of a failure?
A. a level-1 backup at 6:00 AM everyday
B. a level-0 backup soon after the load operation
C. a level-1 backup on Sunday and continuous log backup
D. a level-2 backup at 6:00 AM every day and continuous log backup
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
Answer: D

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NO.20 Under which of the following conditions does the LAST COMMITTED option have an effect on the
COMMITTED READ isolation level?
A. Row level lock
B. Page level locking
C. RAW or unlogged tables
D. Tables containing complex data types
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2180-181
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive
(.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains
information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by
the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing
environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing
environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule
status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with
status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String
comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with
comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The
requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are
required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent
Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer
realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2090-423
Exam Name: IBM (Information Analyzer v8.5)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information
Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited
(csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file;
export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution
file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the
TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option
providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and
send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution
option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting
stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information
Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of
the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with
issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you
create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.6 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two
statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will
allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records.
What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates;
apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase
the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be
configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule
definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProject
Name>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.11 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column
analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage
Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine
the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to
the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and
examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage
Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis.
You want to
evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI)
before running
subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate
the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName
parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName
parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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NO.14 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two
components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction
of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this
requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis
database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using
Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

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