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Exam Code: E20-517
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 192 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

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NO.2 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.6 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.8 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.11 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.12 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.13 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.14 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.15 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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Exam Code: E22-192
Exam Name: EMC (Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An Administrator receives new system requirements where the barcode contains multiple lines of data.
Which filter is used to read the barcode.?
A. Extended Bar Code Detection
B. Patch Code Detection
C. Bar Code Detection
D. Postal Bar Code Detection
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is required to synchronize the InputAccel Server to the InputAccel Database when moving the
database onto a new machine?
A. Reinstall ODBC Component
B. Reinstall InputAccel Server Component
C. Run Data Access Layer registration utility
D. Restart InputAccel service
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Developer modifies an IPP that was generated by CaptureFlow Designer.
Where can the IPP be maintained going forward?
A. CaptureFlow Designer
B. Dispatcher Manager
C. Process Developer
D. Free Form Designer
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which steps are required to upgrade an InputAccel process to use replaced modules when migrating
from InputAccel 5.3 to 6.x?
No additional steps are required to migrate processes
A. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Recompile
Reinstall"
B. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Include new MDF files
Modify to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
C. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Add prepare routines for all new modules
Set manual retriggering
Include new MDF files
Modify IPP to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is one virtualization product that is compatible with InputAccel?
A. VirtualBox
B. XenServer
C. Hyper-V
D. OracleVM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which component is required to run a report?
A. VBA code
B. Stored procedure
C. Client-Side Scripting
D. IPP code
Answer: B

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NO.7 System requirements have been verified and InputAccel is ready to be installed. What is the correct
order of items to be installed?
A. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
Dispatcher for InputAccel client modules"
B. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Web Services
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
C. 1. InputAccel Server
InputAccel Database
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
D. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Email import module supports POP3, POP3 SSL, and which other email protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. HTTP
C. MIME
D. MAPI
Answer: A

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NO.9 A Developer needs to create a database query that will execute after the end user populates a field.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure a new log rule for the IndexPlus module to query the database.
B. Configure IndexPlus to make the database call.
C. Code a database query in IPP code's IndexPlus Finish event
D. Code a database query using Client-Side Scripting with IndexPlus
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which module is used to automatically identify templates defined in a Dispatcher project?
A. Dispatcher manager
B. Classification Edit
C. Classification
D. Validation
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer is required to send (and not return) InputAccel data to an external system via Web
Services.
Which component is responsible for this exchange of information?
A. Web Services Output
B. Web Services Coordinator
C. Web Services Hosting
D. Web Services Export
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which module enables end users to perform quality assurance on scanned images and document
assembly?
A. IndexPlus
B. Image Enhancement
C. RescanPlus
D. NuanceOCR
Answer: C

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NO.13 An Administrator reinstalls the InputAccel Server on new hardware after a disastrous hardware failure.
The Administrator uses the original CAF and LIC files from eighteen months ago to activate and license
the new server.
Why will this result in a non-functioning server?
A. The original CAF file contains invalid EnterBy dates
B. The original CAF file cannot be used on different hardware
C. The original LIC file cannot be used on different hardware
D. The original LIC file contains invalid EnterBy dates
Answer: B

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NO.14 In efforts to tighten InputAccel security, the Administrator is creating a new Supervisor role. The
Supervisor role should have access to the Administration Console and should be able to run client
modules.
What needs to be applied to the new Supervisor role?
A. Role members
B. Windows users and groups
C. Permissions
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Answer: C

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NO.15 An end user needs to export a batch from the InputAccel Server using a system that does not have
client modules installed.
Which mechanism can be used to export the batch to a different directory as a zip archived file?
A. IACopy
B. Multi-Directory Watch
C. File System Export
D. Administration Console
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-690
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

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NO.2 What protocols does the Data Mover support.?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Answer: A

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NO.3 What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: C

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

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NO.6 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is DM 3 located?
A. Location 6
B. Location 5
C. Location 7
D. Location 10
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX
storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± SAS o r t w en t -five 3.5" EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± EFD , SAS o r t w en t -five 2.5" SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± FC , EFD o r t w en t -five .2.5" SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± EFD , FC o r t w en t -five 2.5 ± EFD d i sk d ri ves
Answer: B

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is located in location 3?
A. CS 1
B. CS 0
C. DAE 0
D. DAE 1
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

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NO.14 A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are
running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be
used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-554
Exam Name: EMC (Isilon Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are reviewing an opportunity with a trusted advisor. You both discover gaps in the initial
solution design.
Each iterative discussion with the customer helps you define the solution better. The documents
produced capture the customer's requirements.
What else needs to occur to refine the sizing considerations?
A. Complete your Solution Design Document and forward to EMC consulting.
B. Validate the Workflow Profile Assessment and test the solution against your findings.
C. Review you assumptions and ask the customer what business issue you're solving.
D. Provide the CIO with the findings and gain commitment to a Proof of Concept.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You set up a meeting to gather information on a new project with the IT manager and plan to
use a workflow profile assessment (WPA) to document the requirements.
Why is it recommended to talk to as many stakeholders as possible?
A. Completing this document gives sales a list of who the stakeholders are at customer site.
B. Helps downstream personnel, such as implementation and delivery, to have a clearer
understanding of the requirements.
C. Using workflow profile enables sales to take this information to EMC consulting for review to
validate the configuration.
D. Using the WPA tool will give you the best "big picture" to see things such as block size, de-dupe,
file size and volumes.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What key considerations should be kept in mind when designing a 300TB solution?
A.Workflow management Defining class of service Time of day services RPO and RTO Data retention
and backup
B.Defining class of service Time of day services ROI and TCO Data retention and backup
C.SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots Space for snapshots
D.Always include 2% SSD SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots InsightIQ
Answer: A

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NO.4 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What applications access this storage?
B. What type of racks are in your datacenter?
C. Are you using a KVM to access your storage?
D. How many NICs do your clients have?
Answer: A

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NO.5 When designing Isilon solutions, what issues should you pay special attention to?
A.Avoid being too enthusiastic over the technology Balance technical and business requirements
Provide options Design to meet customer expectations
B.Workflow Document Solutions Document Application types Data strategy
C.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Provide options Practical vs.
theoretical implementations
D.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Downstream hand-off Design
to meet customer expectations
Answer: A

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NO.6 When designing Isilon solutions, which issue should you pay special attention to?
A. Create a workflow document
B. Conduct stakeholder interviews
C. Follow all SSD sizing rules
D. Meet customer expectations
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have had several discussions with your customer in the processor design industry. They
have stated that they want a Scale-Out NAS platform for their design environment. Their most
significant responses were "We have 125 design engineers accessing large diagrams and we need
high throughput to support them. Can we also get the highest performance available? We need to
stay ahead of our competitors." Other areas you discussed were their data retention policies and
workflow after the chip design is completed. They plan to archive the design files but the files must
stay on line.
What is your initial node recommendation?
A. A-Series nodes for the active diagrams and X-Series nodes for the archives.
B. S-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL Series nodes for the archives
C. X-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL 400 nodes for the archives
D. X-Series nodes with SSD for the active diagrams and NL nodes for the archives
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer purchased an Isilon cluster with eight X400 nodes for Home Directories. Your
follow-up discussions have uncovered an opportunity to expand the cluster to support the Legal
Department. As you prepare to complete the Workflow Profile Document, you meet with the
customer to discuss data protection.
Which key areas should you address?
A.Default cluster protection level Additional directory level protections Snapshots and replication
B.WORM requirements Network ports for replication Snapshots for user restores
C.Default cluster protection level Backup windows and processes Concurrency of user access
D.Protocols (SMB, NFS, FTP , HTTP , HDFS) Authentication and Directory Services Performance and
latency concerns
Answer: A

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NO.9 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What application are you using to create directories?
B. Is your datacenter ISO9001 compliant?
C. What protocols are accessing your NAS?
D. How many users are in your Directory Services?
Answer: C

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NO.10 When conducting high-level interviews with stakeholders of a project, what are the key
questions that should be asked?
A.How much usable storage are you looking for? What client OS will access this storage? Which
applications will access this storage?
B.Which backup application is in use today?
What is your change rate?
How many clients will connect to the cluster?
C.What does your network architecture look like?
Do you have existing NAS infrastructure?
Do you have 10Gb or 1Gb ethernet?
Which applications will access this storage?
D.Who are the application owners?
How much usable storage is needed?
What applications will be accessing the storage?
How many users are in your Active Directory?
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y33
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 In the configuration of an E-MSM760 controller, you find that the default VSC is access controlled.
Which statements are true about an inbound packet on the LAN port which does not have a VLAN tag?
(Select two.)
A. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
B. The packet is associated with that VSC if the packet has a known SSID tag.
C. The packet is dropped as the LAN port will only accept VLAN tagged packets.
D. The packet is associated with the default VSC if it has no matching SSID tag.
E. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 When configuring the MSM controller for a controlled mode network, at which point is the AP's VSC
egress VLAN configured?
A. when the Group is created
B. when the AP is synchronized with its Group
C. when the specified VLAN is created
D. when the VSC is bound to the Group
Answer: D

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NO.3 After completing the configuration and synchronization of all team members, you discover through your
initial testing that your APs cannot associate with your team controllers. To solve this problem what should
you check?
A. that your VSC DHCP parameters are set correctly
B. that you have enabled your local DHCP server on your Team Manager (controller)
C. that an external DHCP server exists and is operational on your network
D. that DHCP Relay has been configured on all your team members (controllers)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your controller's Team Manager has suffered a catastrophic failure and an Interim Manager has been
selected. Which action is required to allow the Interim Manager to distribute a new software release to its
team members?
A. The Interim Manager is promoted to Team Manager status.
B. The Interim Manager is rebooted and reconfigured as the new Team Manager.
C. The Interim Manager promotes another team member to Team Manager and the new TeamManager
uploads the new software to the team members.
D. Each Team Member is manually upgraded from the Interim Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When would the IP address of the Internet port on an MSM controller be set to "No Address"?
A. when NAT is enabled
B. when only authenticated traffic is passing through the Internet port
C. when NAT is disabled
D. when only VLAN traffic is passing through the Internet port
Answer: D

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NO.6 In your existing wireless network you have a variety of E-MSM controllers. Which products are capable
of supporting teaming? (Select two.)
A. E-MSM710
B. E-MSM730
C. E-MSM750
D. E-MSM760
E. E-MSM765zl
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 which feature should you enable to enhance Layer 2 (L2) roaming?
A. seamless roaming
B. rapid authentication
C. WPA2 Opportunistic Key Caching
D. single network AP hopping
Answer: C

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NO.8 .What are the major benefits of creating a team of controllers? (Select two.)
A. controller redundancy
B. Flow support
C. local DHCP support
D. PPTP client and server support
E. single IP management of all team controllers
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 When Centralized Access Control is configured as Automatic, when is a user data tunnel created?
A. when more than one controller is on the network that has the same access control configuration
B. when tunnels are manually configured and available
C. when IPSec is set up between two controllers
D. when a synchronized AP and its controller are on different subnets
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the maximum number of E-MSM controllers that can be configured into a single team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.11 An HP E-MSM760 Controller receives untagged traffic on its LAN port from a wireless client associated
with an access point from another manufacturer. In a WLAN configured with VSCs 1-4, which VSC will be
selected to pass this traffic?
A. VSC 2
B. VSC 3
C. VSC 4
D. default VSC
Answer: D

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NO.12 In order to create a new VLAN in an MSM controller configuration, which path should you take to
access the correct screen?
A. VSCs>[select a VSC]>VSC Profile
B. VSCs>VSC bindings>VLANs
C. Controller>Management>VLANs
D. Controller>Network>Ports
Answer: D

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NO.13 On a VSC, which Traffic Type options can be specified for egress VLANs? (Select three.)
A. default gateway traffic
B. IP filtered traffic
C. authenticated traffic
D. untagged traffic
E. intercepted traffic
F. unauthenticated traffic
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.14 A financial institution needs to deploy 80 access points in their new building. Since the institution is not
interested in purchasing additional wired switches for their LAN infrastructure, which solution should be
recommended to manage the access points?
A. HP A3000-24G-PoE+ Wireless Switch
B. HP A-WX5002 Access Controller
C. HP A-WX5004 Access Controller
D. HP A7500/E7900 Access Controller Module
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
You have deployed a guest wireless service in the reception area of a marketing firm. The clients
associated with the guest service should be assigned to VLAN 10. When you test the configuration,
clients are being assigned IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 subnet. You view the access controller
configuration shown in the exhibit.
Which command resolves the issue by correctly associating VLAN 10 with the appropriate interface.?
A. [sysname-wlan-st-1] port access vlan 10
B. [sysname-WLAN-ESS1] port access vlan 10
C. [sysname-GigabitEthernet1/0/1] port access vlan 10
D. [sysname-Vlan-interface10] port access vlan 10
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y29
Exam Name: HP (Installing an HP Networking IP Telephony Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
You have provisioned MAC address data for a phone as shown in the exhibit. What happens when the
phone powers up?
A. The phone prompts for a password without prompting for a phone number. If the correct
password for phone number 1102 is entered, the phone registers as phone number 1102.
B. The phone prompts for a phone number. If 1102 is input, the phone completes registration without
prompting for a password. If any other phone number is input, the phone prompts for a password.
C. The phone does not prompt for a phone number or password, but registers automatically with phone
number 1102.
D. The phone is not allowed to register because it is not locked.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statements are true about the "Export Data" capability on VCX.? (Select two.)
A. Exported data may be viewed on the Central Management Console.
B. The call processor service must be stopped before exporting data.
C. It is only possible to export data from one data table at a time.
D. Data may be exported to a file.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? This method uses an ordered list of
agents for the group. When a call rings into the ACD group it is routed to the next agent on the list
following the agent whom last answered a call for the ACD group. If that agent does not answer the call
after a preset amount of time the call will be routed to the next agent on the list.
The call will continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total
timeout is reached.Then the call will be sent to the call coverage for the ACD group.
A. Linear
B. Circular
C. Calling Group
D. Least Call Count
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? The call is routed first to the agent
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amount of time the call will be routed to the agent in that group with the next-lowest call count. The callwill
continue to be transferred in this pattern until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is
reached.
A. Linear
B. Calling Group
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Most Idle Agent
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which type of ACD group is described in the following paragraph? When a call rings into the ACD group
it rings all members of the group simultaneously. The call will continue to ring all members
until it is answered or until the predetermined total timeout is reached.
A. Calling Group
B. Most Idle Agent
C. Least Call Count
D. Circular
E. Linear
Answer: A

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