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Exam Code: 250-365
Exam Name: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for Windows(NBU 6.5))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 NetBackup Operations Manager provides some useful utilities to help manage the NOM database.
Which command is used to launch the utility to perform NOM maintenance?
A.NOMadmincmd
B.NOMadmin
C.NOMcmd
D.NOMadm
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which report provides a list of media that were used in the last five hours?
A.Tape Lists
B.Tape Written
C.Tape Contents
D.Tape Summary
E.Status of Backups
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation? (Choose
three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer:A C D

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NO.4 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.within the EMM database
B.on the EMM server in binary format
C.on the master server in binary format
D.within the master server's Sybase database
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which factors affect the physical expiration of media? (Choose two.)
A.Date
B.Media full
C.Number of mounts
D.Media being moved to a new server
E.Changing the backup retention level
Answer:A C

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NO.6 Which actions can you take when performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003
system? (Choose two.)
A.You can deselect Veritas Snapshot Provider.
B.You can change the default port numbers.
C.You can only add up to five media servers.
D.You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
E.You can select to install the EMM database server.
Answer:A B

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NO.7 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer:A C E

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NO.8 Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid snapshot-based restores?
A.Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B.True image restore with move detection
C.Disk staging storage unit restore
D.Instant Recovery
Answer:D

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NO.9 A restore must be performed. You have gone into the Backup Archive and Restore GUI and are trying
to view the valid images for clientA but the following error occurs: WARNING: Server does not contain any
valid images. Which options may be incorrectly configured? (Choose three.)
A.Source client for restores
B.Destination client for restores
C.Server to use for backups and restores
D.Media server for restore
E.Policy types for restore
Answer:A C E

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NO.10 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.A master server may use more than one EMM server.
D.A master server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 6.5?
(Choose two.)
A.All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B.All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C.A media server may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
D.A client may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
E.A master server may be one major revision level lower than a media server.
Answer:C D

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NO.13 Which two commands can be used to check and update the robot inventory? (Choose two.)
A.vmcheck
B.bpupdate
C.vmchange
D.vmupdate
E.vmcheckxxx
Answer:D E

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NO.14 What is updated during a NetBackup installation on Windows 2003?
A.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\hosts
B.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and Windows Registry
C.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\hosts
D.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and Windows Control Panel
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which backup method can restore individual files from a raw disk backup?
A.Copy on write snapshot
B.Mirror snapshot
C.FlashBackup
D.True image restore
Answer:C

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NO.16 When a restore is performed to client A, which process will go active when the restore starts?
A.tar
B.bpbkar
C.bpbkar32
D.tar32
Answer:D

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NO.17 You have just installed a NetBackup 6.5 master server and the EMM server is on a different machine.
In addition to bprd, bpjobd, and nbpem, which other processes would be running on the master server if
the installation was successful?
A.bpbrm, nbrb
B.bpdbm, nbemm
C.bpdbm, nbjm
D.bpbrm, nbjm
Answer:C

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NO.18 Consider the following: Your environment has one master server and six SAN media servers. The
systems use Shared Storage Option (SSO) to share ten tape drives on a single robot. Backups run at
night to various media servers and you want to duplicate all backups during the day. All duplications must
run on the master server to free media server resources. What would you do to allow the master server to
perform all duplications?
A.Clear Drive Duplication Enabled in the Device Manager for SAN media servers.
B.In the Vault policy, set Alternate Server Duplicate Disable for SAN media servers.
C.Set an offsite volume pool for master server access only.
D.Set an alternate read server in the Vault Management Properties tab.
Answer:D

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NO.19 Netbackup 6.5 is configured with a disk storage unit with staging enabled. Some of the images in the
disk storage unit have been successfully duplicated. The disk storage unit becomes full. What happens
next?
A.Duplicated images are purged until the disk storage unit can hold the next backup.
B.Duplicated images are purged until 98% below the disk capacity has been reached.
C.Duplicated images are purged until the high water mark has been reached.
D.Duplicated images are purged until the lower water mark has been reached.
Answer:D

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NO.20 What is the name of the Netbackup service running after installation of a Windows client?
A.NetBackup Windows Service
B.NetBackup Client Service
C.NetBackup Remote Service
D.NetBack File System Service
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 250-308
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 for Exchange)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 265 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?
A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.
B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.
C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.
D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The administrator of ACME has been given a small number of PST files that have been exported from
another Enterprise Vault (EV) system that needs to be accessible from the ACME EV system.
What is the recommended method of migrating the PST files into EV?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.6 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
Based on the information included in the Archive Properties window shown in the exhibit, why should an
administrator use the Rebuild Index Volume function?
A. A user's permissions to this archive were recently changed and the administrator wants to update the
index entries with these new permissions.
B. The index volume has failed, which prevents accessing the archived items.
C. A user that had previously delegated access to this archive no longer has this access and the index
must be updated to reflect this change.
D. The archive's indexing level has been changed from Brief to Medium and the user wants to take
advantage of searching all archived items' contents.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.
Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.9 A group of Enterprise Vault (EV) users can open archived shortcuts successfully. However, they are
unable to archive new items. Items selected to be stored within the vault quickly change from a pending
shortcut icon to a normal Outlook e-mail icon without an error.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ability to archive within EV has been disabled for these users.
B. The Archive Task that processes that user's Exchange server is stopped.
C. The Vault Store where the user archives are located is in Backup mode.
D. The Storage service on the EV server is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Enterprise Vault can single instance savesets between which two storage locations? (Select two.)
A. Vault Stores
B. Vault Store Groups
C. Collection Files (.cab)
D. Managed Folders
E. Index Locations
Answer: AC

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NO.12 After an email is archived for 90 days, a company decides to remove shortcuts from users' mailboxes.
Archived email is retained for five years within the archive.
Which three methods provide access to archived email when the shortcut is removed? (Select three.)
A. Search Vaults
B. Outlook search
C. Google desktop
D. Browser search
E. Archive Explorer
Answer: ADE

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NO.13 Which is a benefit of deploying Enterprise Vault?
A. It provides an alternative backup database.
B. It provides a way to help address corporate risk.
C. It provides a way to help address access control.
D. It provides an additional Exchange mail relay.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.15 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions?
(Select three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC

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NO.17 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.18 Enterprise Vault can archive eligible items in mailboxes based on which attributes?
A. mailbox size and state
B. item age and importance level
C. item age and mailbox size
D. mailbox state and utilization
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is a benefit of archiving mailboxes?
A. enhances PST functionality in users' Outlook profiles
B. allows a central repository for users to access all corporate email
C. centralizes management of archived corporate email
D. removes the need for Exchange mailbox quotas
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC

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NO.21 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault
(EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
If an organization uses a Mailbox Archiving Policy that uses the site schedule, how would the task run?
A. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run until it is complete or until 6 p.m. the next day.
B. It would archive 1000 items for each mailbox each hour starting at 6 p.m. until complete or until 6 a.m.
the next day.
C. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run every hour until 6 a.m. the next day.
D. It would start every day at 6 p.m., synchronize all mailboxes, and then run until it is complete or until 6
a.m. the next day.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Refer to the Exhibit.
An organization is using safety copies on their Mailbox Archiving Vault Stores in Enterprise Vault (EV).
Users are prevented from manually archiving or restoring archived items. The organization wants to
minimize the time that users see pending shortcuts in their mailboxes using Outlook.
In what order should the administrator run backups and archiving?
A. back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving, back up EV
B. back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving, back up Exchange
C. back up Exchange, back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving
D. back up EV, back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving
Answer: A

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NO.24 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers.
How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.25 A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a
Business folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories,
respectively. The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item
remains as Personal Expenses.
What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item
moves in to?
A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with
the new retention category.
B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category
updates
C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention
D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move
Answer: B

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NO.26 An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator wants to allow users to delete from archives. After installing the
EV Outlook Add-In, the EV toolbar fails to display the ability to delete archived items. The desktop policy
specifically enables the Delete from Vault functionality on the toolbar.
Which two actions should the administrator perform to correct this issue? (Select two.)
A. add the line "AllowDelete=1" to the WebApp.ini file located in the EV installation directory
B. uncheck "Prevent deletion of archived items in this category" from the retention category properties in
the Vault Administration Console
C. check "Users can delete items from their Archives" in the Site properties window in the Vault
Administration Console
D. restart the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to apply the changes in WebApp.ini
E. use the Mailbox Archiving Task to synchronize user mailboxes with the new policy settings
Answer: CE

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NO.27 Refer to the Exhibit.
An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator needs statistics about how frequently items are accessed. EV
Reporting has been installed and configured correctly. However, when selecting the Archived Items
Access report, it displays "There is no data available to display."
What is the cause for this message to display?
A. EV Auditing is not enabled.
B. EV Operations Manager is not configured.
C. EV Reports Configuration has not run.
D. The EV Fingerprint Database is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.29 Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?
A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server
B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server
C. the Exchange System mailbox
D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox
Answer: D

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NO.30 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-066
Exam Name: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
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Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the
Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and
managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server
components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE

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NO.7 In the Symantec Management Console, which option allows an administrator to add trace level
messages to the Altiris Agent log file?
A. Enable Verbose Reporting of Status Events
B. Enable Trace Reporting of Status Events
C. Allow Failed Job Reporting for Status Events
D. Allow Agent Event Reporting for Status Events
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9?
(Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC

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NO.9 An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two
optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC

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NO.10 After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be
distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE

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NO.11 Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which default Standard Inventory policy is enabled to run when Inventory Solution is first installed?
A. Collect Full Inventory
B. Collect Hardware Inventory
C. Collect Custom Inventory
D. Collect Basic Inventory
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is
left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new
Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which agent must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Software Delivery Update Agent
B. Client Task Agent
C. Patch Management Agent
D. Software Update Agent
Answer: D

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NO.16 Where do you view the status of Software Updates while on a managed computer?
A. Add Remove Programs
B. Event Viewer
C. Software Management Agent
D. Altiris Agent
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are
optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select
two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that
can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-401
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.0 with Notification Server)
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.2 During installation of the Symantec Management Platform 7.0 (SMP), an administrator specifies an
account created for SMP to be used as the Application Identity. When the administrator tries to connect to
the console from their workstation they receive an Access Denied message.
Why is the administrator's access denied?
A. The account used to install is the only account in the Symantec Administrators Group.
B. The account used during installation has NOT been added to the Domain Administrators Group.
C. The system administrator is using an account that is not a member of the Domain Administrators
Group.
D. The console must be run from a terminal services session of the Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.4 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations.
Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.6 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. by including appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B. by replacing filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secured data
classes C. by creating multiple organizational views and groups that contain appropriate subset of
resources
D. by granting permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and
stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.8 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.9 Refer to the Exhibit.
What is the effect of setting the scoped option when building a report query?
A. The report results will be limited to the resources that the user has permissions to view.
B. The users will be unable to bring up the Resource Manager by right-clicking on a row in the report
results
C. The available data classes will be limited to those that the user has permissions to view.
D. The users will be unable to drill-down to lower levels when viewing the report results.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A manager is attempting to run a report that identifies users who have Microsoft Office and Adobe
software installed, but the report fails to run What is the first thing the administrator should do?
A. check the report for errors
B. check the manager's permissions
C. remove security from the report
D. clone and modify the report
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are two ways that permissions are set within the Security Role Manager? (Select two.)
A. security role membership
B. NT rights assignment
C. inheritance
D. explicitly granted
E. domain membership
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned the Daily Event report. What must the administrator change to create a
Weekly Event report?
A. edit the Query Parameters to show a week of data
B. edit thedateadd(day, -1 @cutoffdate) section
C. edit the Resolved Query to show a week of data
D. edit the views on the Views tab
Answer: B

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NO.13 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by promptingAltiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 The IT Department has been experiencing frequent turnover requiring administrators to modify security
role membership on an individual user basis An administrator wants to take advantage of membership
assignments established when new users are created in the network environment and connect them to
security roles. Which resource can be used in the Membership tab to allow user assignments to be
managed independently of the Security Role Manager?
A. Active Directory Security groups
B. Active Directory organizational units
C. Altiris Security Users
D. Altiris Security Groups
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which permissions do new security roles have?
A. the same permissions as the Symantec Administrators role
B. the same permissions as the Symantec Guests role
C. the same permissions as the Symantec Supervisors role
D. none
Answer: D

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NO.17 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers.
Which menu item should the administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.18 An Administrator wants to customize the default Symantec Administrators security role for use as a new
template for future console administrators Upon selection, the options are grayed out and inaccessible.
Which action should the administrator take to modify these privileges?
A. break inheritance to parent roles
B. take ownership of the role
C. clone the role and modify the copy
D. use a different credential with more permissions
Answer: C

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NO.19 The IT staff for a large corporation is distributed among its many physical sites. The Symantec
Management Platform administrator needs to ensure that the local IT staff for any given location only has
rights to manage computers at that location and not at any other location.
Which two items must the administrator create and assign the appropriate rights to? (Select two.)
A. filter
B. organizational group
C. site
D. organizational view
E. collection
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to theAltiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-29B
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-28

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NO.1 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.5 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.6 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.9 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

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NO.13 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.15 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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NO.17 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ASC-029
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Enterprise Security 2010)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-28

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NO.1 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A. likelihood of occurrence
B. order of occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A, D

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NO.2 When defining location switching criteria, which two can be used? (Select two.)
A. MAC address
B. Wins Server address
C. host name
D. NIC description
E. OS type
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 At an administrator ¯ s fir s t m ee ti ng w it h a cus t o m e r t hey r ea li ze t ha t t he ir cus t o m e r i s expec ti ng t he
product to do a certain function that the administrator is sure it cannot accomplish. What should the
administrator ¯ s r esponse be?
A. call the account team
B. escalate to the administrator ¯ s m anage r
C. provide alternative solutions
D. call the product manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator has deployed LAN enforcer within the network and enabled 802.lx on all switch ports.
How can the administrator ensure that printers directly connected to the switch are still accessible, and
also prevent computers bypassing LAN enforcement should they be connected to the printer ¯ s ne t w o r k
outlet?
A. install Symantec Endpoint Protection on the printers
B. add the MAC addresses of the printers to the Trusted Hosts list in the advanced settings of the
Enforcer Group properties
C. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mab enable
D. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mac and the list of printer MAC
addresses
Answer: C

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NO.5 With an 802.lx enabled switch, the SNAC client communicates with the switch at which layer of the OSI
reference model for EAP authentication?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
C. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
D. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-130
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-28

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NO.1 An administrator needs to review several Symantec Management Console reports daily and would like
to have them in a single view. How can the reports be combined into a single view?
A. create a custom dashboard that merges the reports
B. create a custom portal page that displays each of the reports as web parts
C. export the reports and import them into one custom folder
D. link each of the reports to a single custom sub-menu item
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the Symantec recommended method for a Service Desk agent to use to install the Altiris Agent
when visiting a user's cubicle?
A. Manual Pull
B. Manual Push
C. Scheduled Push
D. Agent Upgrade Policy
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a properly configured middleware computer known as?
A. Task Service
B. Subnet Server
C. Site Server
D. Package Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two services can a Site Server provide? (Select two.)
A. Package Service
B. OAB Service
C. Task Service
D. AEXSVC Service
E. Replication Service
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How long are User-based policies cached on a managed computer?
A. one week
B. one month
C. two weeks
D. two months
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.12 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers. Which menu item should the
administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.13 Under which menu option are filters located in the Symantec Management Console?
A. Manage
B. Settings
C. Actions
D. Home
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory.
Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this
computer.? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent for Windows - Install policy
B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter
C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule
D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target
E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy
Answer: C,E

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NO.15 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.16 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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NO.17 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by prompting Altiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which policies run on Notification Server and are not concerned with agent activity on managed
computers?
A. Automation policies
B. Target-based policies
C. User-based policies
D. Filter-based policies
Answer: A

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