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Exam Code: 310-015
Exam Name: SUN (SUN Certified SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 PART II)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 299 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 Which command should be used to create a file system on a virtual volume (d0) under Solaris Volume
Manager control?
A. newfs /dev/rdsk/d0
B. newfs /dev/rdsk/md/d0 C. newfs /dev/md/rdsk/d0
D. newfs -F sds /dev/rdsk/d0
Answer: C

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NO.2 The default run level is 3 and the host is configured as an NFS server with valid entries in
/etc/dfs/dfstab. Which two command strings restart NFS services? (Choose two.)
A. init 6
B. pkill -HUP inetd
C. /etc/init.d/nfs.server restart
D. /etc/init.d/nfs.server stop;/etc/init.d/nfs.server start
Answer: AD

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NO.3 You are working on a system connected to the network. You are attempting to access a currently
mounted NFS directory. Your system displays the message: nfs mount: host1: : NFS: Service not
responding nfs mount: retrying: /usr/share/man What can you do to solve this problem?
A. ensure that nfsd is running on the NFS server
B. ensure that mountd is running on the NFS server
C. send a HUP signal to inetd process on the NFS server
D. send a HUP signal to the rpcbind process on the NFS server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Interlace size is a tunable parameter associated with which three levels of RAID? (Choose three.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 The auto_home automount map is an example of which type of map?
A. xfn
B. direct
C. master
D. generic
E. indirect
Answer: E

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NO.6 You have two 50-MByte UFS file systems, one located on a single disk, and the other located on a
RAID 1 mirror. Both file systems are full. The RAID 1 mirror uses a round-robin read policy. Statistically,
which is true of the RAID 1 mirror when reading data?
A. The mirror is faster.
B. The mirror is slower.
C. Round-robin read policies are not allowed.
D. The mirror and single disk exhibit the same performance.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have a system used for application development. The process app-rev23 owned by user
epiphylla terminates abnormally. Which two effects can the root user configure? (Choose two.)
A. The process app-rev23 produces no core file at all.
B. The process app-rev23 produces a core file without the string "core" appearing anywhere within the file
name.
C. The process app-rev23 produces a global core file readable by any user in a global /var/corefiles
directory.
D. The process app-rev23 produces a total of three core files, one in the current directory of the process,
one in epiphylla's home directory, and one in a global /var/corefiles directory.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 You are working on a system connected to the network. You attempt to access a directory which you
know is providedto your system using NFS, and which you have not accessed for some time. Your
system displays the message: stale NFS file handle What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The lockd daemon on the local system is no longer running.
B. The mountd daemon on the local system has out of date configuration information.
C. The automountd daemon has not been informed of changes to the automount maps.
D. The file or directory has been removed on the NFS server without the client's knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.9 After creating and adding additional swap space, what should you do to ensure that the swap space is
available following subsequent reboots?
A. You add it as a line entry to the /etc/vfstab file.
B. You modify the startup scripts to include a swap add command.
C. The additional swap space cannot be made available following subsequent reboots.
D. No additional steps are required because the necessary changes are made to the startup file when the
swap space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An inexperienced administrator reports to you that they would like to see if a system is a functioning
native LDAPclient. You suggest that they run a command to verify that the system is configured as a
native LDAP client. Whichcommand should you suggest?
A. ldaplist
B. ldapclient -v
C. ldapadd client
D. ldapsearch client
Answer: A

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NO.11 Under which two conditions will the automounter automatically mount resources listed in an AutoFS
direct map? (Choose two.)
A. only if the mount point has first been created
B. only if the resources are to be mounted read-only
C. only if the reference used in the direct map uses relative path names
D. only if an entry for the direct map has been added to the master map
E. only if the reference used in the direct map uses absolute path names
Answer: DE

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NO.12 You are receiving error messages that the /lard file system is full. You check and see that it has a
large file called swapfile. Your system has more than enough swap space. You suspect that the file is in
use as swap space. Which sequence of commands confirms that the file was in use as swap space, and
helps correct the file system problem?
A. swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
B. swap -l ; swap -d /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
C. swap -l ; rm /lard/swapfile ; swap -d /lard/swapfile
D. swap -l ; swap -r /lard/swapfile ; rm /lard/swapfile
Answer: B

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NO.13 While configuring NIS on a system, you execute the command string:# domainname
testlab.Region.Org.COM Which two statements about this command are true? (Choose two.)
A. The server's name is testlab, and it resides in the region.org.com domain.
B. Executing this command populates the /etc/defaultdomain file with the domain name.
C. The domain name is case sensitive, and must be configured exactly as specified on this
command-line.
D. The domain name is the entire character string testlab.Region.Org.COM, and no DNS domain is
specified.
Answer: CD

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NO.14 You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that
if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting
for the resource to mount.Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. fg
B. ro
C. bg
D. intr
E. soft
F. hard
Answer: C

SUN   310-015   310-015

NO.15 What can be added to the /etc/vfstab file to automatically mount the /var directory from the NFS server
saturn onto the mount point /test during boot?
A. /var - /test nfs - yes -
B. saturn:/var - /test - yes -
C. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes
D. saturn:/var /test nfs yes
E. saturn:/var - /test nfs - yes -
Answer: E

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NO.16 Solaris Volume Manager offers advantages over storing data in traditional disk slices. What are two of
these advantages? (Choose two.)
A. It facilitates the rotational interleaving of data.
B. It enables the definition of disk usage patterns.
C. It offers the possibility of significant performance improvement.
D. It manages the data to ensure that disk failure does not automatically lead to data loss.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
C. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
D. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
E. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which two are functions of an NFS client? (Choose two.)
A. runs the nfsd daemon
B. makes resources available over the network
C. mounts remote resources across the network
D. is configured using the /etc/dfs/dfstab file
E. mounts a remote resource and uses it as though it were local
Answer: CE

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NO.19 In which situation will Solaris Volume Manager volumes continue to function normally in the event of
the corruption of one copy of its state database?
A. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the master copy of the state database is not
corrupted.
B. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if the copy of the state database on the boot
disk is available.
C. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if no more than a single copy of the state
database is corrupted.
D. Solaris Volume Manager volumes will function normally if more than half of the copies of the state
database are available.
Answer: D

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NO.20 The /etc/dfs/dfstab file on your Solaris system contains the entries: share -o log=global /export/home
share -o ro /opt/NSCPcom What is the purpose of the entry global?
A. It specifies that all NFS transactions are logged in the /var/adm/global file.
B. It specifies the tag to send to the syslogd daemon when logging the NFS share.
C. It specifies the logging configuration to use from the NFS logging configuration file.
D. It specifies the file in the /export/home directory in which to record NFS mount requests.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 310-810
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part 1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-04

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NO.1 Which of the following is true for the command-line programs mysqlcheck and myisamchk?
A. mysqlcheck must run on the server to perform checks and repairs and myisamchk can perform checks
and repairs on a remote server.
B. mysqlcheck can perform checks and repairs on a remote server, and myisamchk must run on the
server.
C. Both mysqlcheck and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
D. Neither mysqlcheck or myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When making connections to a MySQL server on a Unix platform, which of the following is true?
A. TCP/IP connections are faster than socket file connections.
B. Socket file connections are faster than TCP/IP connections.
C. TCP/IP and Socket file connections are equally as fast.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where is the data stored for a table that is defined as using the FEDERATED Storage Engine?
A. The data will always be stored on the local host.
B. The data will always be stored on a remote host.
C. The data can be stored on any host depending on the definition of the table.
D. The data will always be stored on disk.
E. The data will always be stored in memory.
F. The data will be stored according to the storage engine of the referenced table.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 mysqldump can be instructed to dump...
A. Only table structures
B. Only data
C. Both table structures and data
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements can be used to start MySQL 5.0 manually from the command
line on windows?
A. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqladmin -u root start
B. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqld
C. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysql_start
Answer: B

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NO.6 Of the following mechanisms available to connect a MySQL client to a MySQL database server, which
types of connections are only available on Windows based systems?
A. TCP/IP
B. Sockets
C. Shared Memory
D. Named Pipes
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true regarding the data directory on a Windows binary
installation?
A. A script needs to be run to initialize it after installation.
B. It comes pre-initialized.
C. You can choose to pre-initialize it or initialize it manually during the installation.
Answer: B

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NO.8 MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by it's
own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is true for how the InnoDB storage engine uses diskspace?
A. It stores its data, index and undo information all in its own tablespace.
B. It stores its data in .MYD files, in the respective database directory, and its index and undo information
in its own tablespace.
C. It stores its data and index in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory, and undo
information in its own tablespace.
D. It stores its data, index and undo information in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database
directory.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following best describes how MySQL utilizes the grant table buffers?
A. The grant table buffer loads grant table information into memory for fast access.
B. The grant table buffer loads what users are currently logged in and performing queries.
C. The grant table buffer holds requests waiting to check the grant table to perform access-control.
Answer: A

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NO.11 In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: ABCD

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NO.12 Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true for locks established by the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It sometimes escalates locks to page level.
B. It sometimes escalates locks to table level.
C. It sometimes escalates locks to page or table level.
D. It never escalates locks to page or table level.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Another user has issued LOCK TABLES pets READ You can...
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. UPDATE and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is true of a MySQL client and server?
A. They must be run on the same type of Operating System.
B. They must be run on the same hardware architecture.
C. They do not have to be run on the same type of Operating System.
D. They do not have to be run on the same hardware architecture.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which of the following package types are provided specifically for UNIX-style OS installations?
A. Essentials
B. RPM
C. Source
D. tar-packaged binary
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Which of the following are requirements for InnoDB binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
D. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 Which of the following statements correctly describes the way to enable and use shared memory
connections to the MySQL database server?
A. Shared memory connections are available by default on all platforms, but must have TCP/IP
networking
disabled by using the --skip-networking option.
B. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and is enabled by default.
C. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and must be enabled by using the
--shared-memory command line option.
D. Shared memory is not a supported communication method for the MySQL database server.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following best describes the processing model for how the MySQL server handles
queries?
A. The server uses a one-tier processing model in which each storage engine optimizes and processes
each query issued against it.
B. The server uses a two-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier and a storage engine tier.
C. The server uses a three-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier, a formatting tier and a storage
engine tier.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C

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NO.1 A company has 30,000 employees with identities spread across multiple resources on
heterogeneous platforms. The company has issues with publishing corporate data to its web site
in a timely and secure fashion. The IT department is inundated with requests for password resets.
The corporation has security concerns about unknown active accounts and wants fine-grained
control over corporate resources. Company auditors require quarterly reports of employee
resource entitlements, certified by their managers. In addition, the company wants to streamline its
product channel with a partner corporation by sharing corporate resources. Which two business
drivers support deploying Identity Manager? (Choose two.)
A. The company wants to enhance IT security by intercepting access requests to authorize users
for applications.
B. The company wants to reduce IT costs by implementing self-service password reset.
C. The company wants to enhance IT security by detecting and preventing network intrusion.
D. The company wants to reduce IT costs by implementing single sign-on (SSO).
E. The company wants to enhance IT security by automating the deprovisioning of accounts.
F. The company wants to enhance IT security by maintaining digital signatures.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which two business factors support the configuration of Identity Manager SPE? (Choose two.)
A. The solution must support provisioning of up to 100,000 employee identities across disparate
systems.
B. The solution must support a self-service account feature for 1,000,000+ customer identities.
C. The solution must support complex approval processes for all provisioning requests.
D. The solution must utilize a corporate LDAP resource as its user repository.
E. The solution must maintain a single repository for all identities, request state, configuration, and
audit data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 What are three of the essential features of the XPRESS language? (Choose three.)
A. uses Postfix notation
B. uses Prefix notation
C. is structured using XML syntax
D. is compiled
E. describes an SPML syntax
F. has notion of libraries
Answer: B,C,F

SUN   310-400 exam dumps   310-400 demo   310-400

NO.4 Which three SPML 1.0 ExtendedRequests has the SPML 2.0 implementation standardized?
(Choose three.)
A. disableUser
B. launchProcess
C. resetUserPassword
D. changeUserPassword
E. listResourceObjects
F. runForm
Answer: A,C,D

SUN answers real questions   310-400   310-400 exam dumps   310-400

NO.5 Which major deliverable will require the identification of an authoritative source for user
identity?
A. user self service
B. password management
C. identity synchronization
D. delegated administration
E. password management and delegated administration
Answer: C

SUN   310-400   310-400 demo

NO.6 When a work item is generated by an executing task, the top-level variable userview is copied
into
the WorkItem data model. Which variable name is used to reference the userview?
A. userview
B. task.userview
C. variable.userview
D. variables.userview
E. context.userview
F. baseContext.userview
G. display.userview
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two features are provided by Identity Manager to improve audit compliance? (Choose
two.)
A. Audit controls are enforced upon provisioning.
B. Resource groups encapsulate fine-grained entitlements that can be assigned to a user by a
manager, ensuring fine-grained, separation of
duties.
C. Roles allow managers to assign entitlements while ensuring separation of duties.
D. Identity Manager stores and encrypts all personal data, such as government-issued IDs.
E. Identity Manager supports reading of resource logs for forensic analysis and reporting.
Answer: A,C

SUN certification training   310-400 test answers   310-400 dumps

NO.8 A company has a policy of using the first initial from a users name concatenated with the
users
last name plus a counter to generate unique user names. For example, a user named John Doe
would be assigned jdoe as a user name. The second John Doe hired would be assigned jdoe2
and so on. Why might this approach be problematic?
A. Multiple users can be assigned the same user name.
B. Identity Manager cannot programmatically concatenate names.
C. Identity Manager cannot specify user names; these come from authoritative sources.
D. Name changes make historical reporting and auditing difficult.
E. Identity Manager has no way of knowing or generating the next available counter.
Answer: D

SUN   310-400   310-400 test   310-400 certification training   310-400 practice test

NO.9 Which statement is NOT true?
A. Attestations allow managers to sign off on an employees entitlements as appropriate to the
employees job function and responsibilities.
B. Mitigations allow a manager or other responsible individual to acknowledge and sustain a
control violation with appropriate cause or
conditions.
C. Remediations allow a manager or other responsible individual to correct a control violation
immediately, which is reflected in the entitlement
record that is saved for audit reporting.
D. Policy scans must be launched in auditor to catch control violations resulting from provisioning
through the Identity Manager side.
E. Entitlements are snapshots of access rights generated at the time of an access scan to record
attestation reviews for reporting and forensics;
however, they can be updated using rescans to reflect the absolute latest entitlements.
Answer: D

SUN   310-400 Bootcamp   310-400

NO.10 Identity Manager uses Confirmation and Correlation rules while performing synchronization
tasks.
Which of these rules provides faster processing and why?
A. The Confirmation Rule is faster because it uses only a single AttributeCondition clause in the
rule syntax.
B. The Correlation Rule is faster because it uses only a single AttributeCondition clause in the rule
syntax.
C. The Correlation Rule is faster because it uses only data contained in the repository.
D. The Confirmation Rule is faster because it uses only data contained in the repository.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 310-502
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-15

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NO.1 What Java CAPS elements below are required for code to be Executed and Monitored in
Production? 1. Enterprise Manager 2. Enterprise Designer 3. Repository 4. UDDI Server 5. Domain
6. An .ear file
A.3, 2, 6 & 5 only.
B.4 to discover services, 3, 1 & 5.
C.4 to discover services, 6, 5 & 1.
D.1, 5 & 6 only.
E.3 to discover services, 5, 6 & 1.
Correct:C

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.2 In order to have more than one activity executing concurrently in a Business Process, which
eInsight modeling element should be used?
A.the Event-Based Decision element
B.the Reply modeling element
C.the Join modeling element
D.the Flow modeling element
Correct:D

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.3 What is the difference between undeploy and disable in the Enterprise Manager?
A.Undeploy temporarily stops the ear, Disable removes it from the domain.
B.Undeploy removes the ear from eManager, Disable doesnt.
C.Undeploy removes the ear file from the Domain, Disable stops it temporarily.
D.None of the Above.
Correct:C

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.4 How can a Business Process be configured so that it is capable of responding to more than one
type of error at a time?
A.BPEL does not support the ability to catch multiple exceptions.
B.Create a scope and drag down as many Catch Named Exception elements as needed.
C.Create a catch block to handle as many exceptions as necessary.
D.Select Multi option in the Business Process error handling properties dialog.
Correct:B

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.5 During installation, the ProductList.sar file can be changed to update:_____
A.the components available to upload
B.the components available to download
C.the installed components
D.the registered components
Correct:A

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.6 Which of the following add-ons are required when attempting to exchange messages with a JMS
Message Server external to Java CAPS?
A.the JMS eWay
B.the eGate API Kit
C.JMS Message Selectors
D.this can be done programmatically without additional products
Correct:B

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.7 Java CAPS Documentation can be accessed: (Select all that apply) _____
A.by uploading the docs to the Repository and viewing them through the Enterprise Manager
B.by decompressing the capsDocs.sar file to a directory of your choice
C.in the installed tree structure on the Repository
D.from the help screen dialog box
E.from the Documentation CD
F.from the docs.sun.com website
Correct:A C F

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.8 To utilize a component from one Project in another, you can: (Select all that apply.) _____
A.export the component from the source Project and import it to the target Project
B.copy the component from the source Project and paste it to the target Project
C.include the remote component in the Deployment Profile of the target Project
D.drag-and-drop the component onto the target Projects Connectivity Map
E.you can not share components among Projects
Correct:B D

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

NO.9 Which Java CAPS component determines the fields within a message that can be accessed by a
Java Collaboration?
A.Business Process
B.Connectivity Map
C.Object Type Definition
D.Activity
Correct:C

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502

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Exam Code: 310-610
Exam Name: SUN (EDS Certified Sun Fire Workgroup Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-15

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NO.1 You want to apply the following effect to the headline of your sheet. Which of the following menus
and/or commands enables you to do this?
A. Highlight the cells, right-click with the mouse and select Format Cells > Font Effects > Text Alignment
45 Deg
B. Display the Text Container Component from the Drawing Bar an rotate the cell in the Cell Alignment
dialog box
C. Highlight the cells, right-click with the mouse and select Format Cells > Alignment > Text Orientation 45
Deg
D. Highlight the cells and press the icon rai4a36be783f21 to rotate the cell content
Answer: C

SUN   310-610   310-610 pdf   310-610   310-610

NO.2 What do you have to do to print out a single sheet in landscape format and all other sheets in portrait
format if you want to perform it with a single print job?
A. Select the appropriate sheet, then select Format > Page > Tab Page, and then select Landscape.
Portrait is now the default page orientation for all other sheets
B. Select the appropriate sheet, display the Styles and Formatting Palette, under the formatting tab select
Page Styles > Select Default > Modify, select the Page tab, and select Page Orientation Landscape, press
OK. Portrait is the default page orientation for all other sheets
C. Display the Styles and Formatting Palette, under the formatting tab select Page Styles > right-click,
select New, select the Page tab, under Page Orientation select Landscape and press OK. Apply new
page style to specific sheet. Portrait is the default page orientation for all other sheets
D. Display the Styles and Formatting Palette, under the formatting tab select Page Styles > Select
Default > New > Define A New Page Style, select the Page tab, and select Page Orientation Portrait,
press OK. Apply new page style to all specific sheets. Landscape is the default page orientation for all
other sheets
Answer: C

SUN   310-610   310-610

NO.3 You want to apply conditional formatting to a cell or cell range. Which of the following must you
consider?
A. You have to define a minimum set of 3 different cell formats first
B. You have to define a minimum set of 2 different cell formats first
C. You have to define a minimum set of 4 different cell formats first
D. You have to define a minimum set of 1 different cell formats first
Answer: D

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NO.4 You want to change the font type or font size of the main chart title. Which of the following menus
and/or commands enables you to do this?
A. Double click on the chart, select Format > Title > Main Title
B. Double click on the chart, single click on the title, right-click on the selected title and select object
properties
C. Double click on the chart, select Format > Title > All Titles
D. Right-click on the chart, select Format, select Chart Properties, from the Title section of the Chart
Properties dialog box, change the formatting options
Answer: ABC

SUN   310-610 questions   310-610   310-610

NO.5 You want to add a customized header to your spreadsheet. Which of the following menus and/or
commands enables you to do this?
A. Format > Page > Header, set the checkbox Header on and edit it
B. Right-click on the sheet and select Page > Header, set the checkbox Header on and edit it
C. Open the Styles and Formatting Palette and select the wanted Page Style > Modify > Header, set the
checkbox Header on and edit it
D. Select Format > Header, set the checkbox Header on and edit it
Answer: AC

SUN   310-610   310-610 original questions

NO.6 You want to format a cell or cell range as currency. Which of the following icons enables you to do this?
A. _

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Exam Code: 310-813
Exam Name: SUN (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part II )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-15

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NO.1 Which of the following is a valid method to restrict the amount of records returned from SHOW
WARNINGS.?
A. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
B. SHOW WARNINGS LIMIT
C. limit can not be used with show warnings
Answer: A,B

SUN practice questions   310-813 practice questions   310-813

NO.2 Which of the following statements are true?
A. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few
updates to occur
B. The MylSAM storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
C. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect many reads and few updates to
occur
D. The InnoDB storage engine should be preferred when you expect a mix of many reads and many
updates to occur
Answer: A,D

SUN original questions   310-813   310-813   310-813

NO.3 Which of the following describe situations when MySQL generates warnings?
A. When it is not able to completely fulfill a request.
B. When a system-level error occurs.
C. When an action has possible unintended side-effects.
Answer: A,C

SUN certification   310-813   310-813

NO.4 Consider the following statement: show COUNT (*) warnings what would be the result of executing this
statement?
A. An error would be returned, as this is not valid syntax.
B. The number of current warnings would be returned.
C. The total number of warnings server-wide would be returned
Answer: B

SUN   310-813   310-813 practice questions   310-813   310-813 test answers

NO.5 When executing multi-row operations, what should be the first thing you look for to see if anything
unexpected happened?
A. Warning/Error Count.
B. Warning/Error Codes.
C. Warning/Error messages.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 310-502
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 During installation, the ProductList.sar file can be changed to update:_____
A.the components available to upload
B.the components available to download
C.the installed components
D.the registered components
Correct:A

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.2 Which Java CAPS component determines the fields within a message that can be accessed by a
Java Collaboration?
A.Business Process
B.Connectivity Map
C.Object Type Definition
D.Activity
Correct:C

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.3 What is the difference between undeploy and disable in the Enterprise Manager?
A.Undeploy temporarily stops the ear, Disable removes it from the domain.
B.Undeploy removes the ear from eManager, Disable doesnt.
C.Undeploy removes the ear file from the Domain, Disable stops it temporarily.
D.None of the Above.
Correct:C

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.4 What Java CAPS elements below are required for code to be Executed and Monitored in
Production? 1. Enterprise Manager 2. Enterprise Designer 3. Repository 4. UDDI Server 5. Domain
6. An .ear file
A.3, 2, 6 & 5 only.
B.4 to discover services, 3, 1 & 5.
C.4 to discover services, 6, 5 & 1.
D.1, 5 & 6 only.
E.3 to discover services, 5, 6 & 1.
Correct:C

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.5 How can a Business Process be configured so that it is capable of responding to more than one
type of error at a time?
A.BPEL does not support the ability to catch multiple exceptions.
B.Create a scope and drag down as many Catch Named Exception elements as needed.
C.Create a catch block to handle as many exceptions as necessary.
D.Select Multi option in the Business Process error handling properties dialog.
Correct:B

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.6 Which of the following add-ons are required when attempting to exchange messages with a JMS
Message Server external to Java CAPS?
A.the JMS eWay
B.the eGate API Kit
C.JMS Message Selectors
D.this can be done programmatically without additional products
Correct:B

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.7 In order to have more than one activity executing concurrently in a Business Process, which
eInsight modeling element should be used?
A.the Event-Based Decision element
B.the Reply modeling element
C.the Join modeling element
D.the Flow modeling element
Correct:D

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.8 Java CAPS Documentation can be accessed: (Select all that apply) _____
A.by uploading the docs to the Repository and viewing them through the Enterprise Manager
B.by decompressing the capsDocs.sar file to a directory of your choice
C.in the installed tree structure on the Repository
D.from the help screen dialog box
E.from the Documentation CD
F.from the docs.sun.com website
Correct:A C F

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

NO.9 To utilize a component from one Project in another, you can: (Select all that apply.) _____
A.export the component from the source Project and import it to the target Project
B.copy the component from the source Project and paste it to the target Project
C.include the remote component in the Deployment Profile of the target Project
D.drag-and-drop the component onto the target Projects Connectivity Map
E.you can not share components among Projects
Correct:B D

SUN practice questions   310-502 original questions   310-502   310-502   310-502 exam

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Exam Code: 310-400
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified Integrator for Identity Manager 7.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 A company has 30,000 employees with identities spread across multiple resources on
heterogeneous platforms. The company has issues with publishing corporate data to its web site
in a timely and secure fashion. The IT department is inundated with requests for password resets.
The corporation has security concerns about unknown active accounts and wants fine-grained
control over corporate resources. Company auditors require quarterly reports of employee
resource entitlements, certified by their managers. In addition, the company wants to streamline its
product channel with a partner corporation by sharing corporate resources. Which two business
drivers support deploying Identity Manager? (Choose two.)
A. The company wants to enhance IT security by intercepting access requests to authorize users
for applications.
B. The company wants to reduce IT costs by implementing self-service password reset.
C. The company wants to enhance IT security by detecting and preventing network intrusion.
D. The company wants to reduce IT costs by implementing single sign-on (SSO).
E. The company wants to enhance IT security by automating the deprovisioning of accounts.
F. The company wants to enhance IT security by maintaining digital signatures.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which major deliverable will require the identification of an authoritative source for user
identity?
A. user self service
B. password management
C. identity synchronization
D. delegated administration
E. password management and delegated administration
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is NOT true?
A. Attestations allow managers to sign off on an employees entitlements as appropriate to the
employees job function and responsibilities.
B. Mitigations allow a manager or other responsible individual to acknowledge and sustain a
control violation with appropriate cause or
conditions.
C. Remediations allow a manager or other responsible individual to correct a control violation
immediately, which is reflected in the entitlement
record that is saved for audit reporting.
D. Policy scans must be launched in auditor to catch control violations resulting from provisioning
through the Identity Manager side.
E. Entitlements are snapshots of access rights generated at the time of an access scan to record
attestation reviews for reporting and forensics;
however, they can be updated using rescans to reflect the absolute latest entitlements.
Answer: D

SUN   310-400   310-400   310-400

NO.4 Which two business factors support the configuration of Identity Manager SPE? (Choose two.)
A. The solution must support provisioning of up to 100,000 employee identities across disparate
systems.
B. The solution must support a self-service account feature for 1,000,000+ customer identities.
C. The solution must support complex approval processes for all provisioning requests.
D. The solution must utilize a corporate LDAP resource as its user repository.
E. The solution must maintain a single repository for all identities, request state, configuration, and
audit data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which three SPML 1.0 ExtendedRequests has the SPML 2.0 implementation standardized?
(Choose three.)
A. disableUser
B. launchProcess
C. resetUserPassword
D. changeUserPassword
E. listResourceObjects
F. runForm
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Identity Manager uses Confirmation and Correlation rules while performing synchronization
tasks.
Which of these rules provides faster processing and why?
A. The Confirmation Rule is faster because it uses only a single AttributeCondition clause in the
rule syntax.
B. The Correlation Rule is faster because it uses only a single AttributeCondition clause in the rule
syntax.
C. The Correlation Rule is faster because it uses only data contained in the repository.
D. The Confirmation Rule is faster because it uses only data contained in the repository.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are three of the essential features of the XPRESS language? (Choose three.)
A. uses Postfix notation
B. uses Prefix notation
C. is structured using XML syntax
D. is compiled
E. describes an SPML syntax
F. has notion of libraries
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.8 Which two features are provided by Identity Manager to improve audit compliance? (Choose
two.)
A. Audit controls are enforced upon provisioning.
B. Resource groups encapsulate fine-grained entitlements that can be assigned to a user by a
manager, ensuring fine-grained, separation of
duties.
C. Roles allow managers to assign entitlements while ensuring separation of duties.
D. Identity Manager stores and encrypts all personal data, such as government-issued IDs.
E. Identity Manager supports reading of resource logs for forensic analysis and reporting.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 When a work item is generated by an executing task, the top-level variable userview is copied
into
the WorkItem data model. Which variable name is used to reference the userview?
A. userview
B. task.userview
C. variable.userview
D. variables.userview
E. context.userview
F. baseContext.userview
G. display.userview
Answer: D

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NO.10 A company has a policy of using the first initial from a users name concatenated with the
users
last name plus a counter to generate unique user names. For example, a user named John Doe
would be assigned jdoe as a user name. The second John Doe hired would be assigned jdoe2
and so on. Why might this approach be problematic?
A. Multiple users can be assigned the same user name.
B. Identity Manager cannot programmatically concatenate names.
C. Identity Manager cannot specify user names; these come from authoritative sources.
D. Name changes make historical reporting and auditing difficult.
E. Identity Manager has no way of knowing or generating the next available counter.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 310-231
Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified Developer for Java Web Services 5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-23

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NO.1 out.println("<p>Exception: " + ex);

NO.2 A company has contracted a developer to create their new accounting system. The system the
developer will replace runs a monolithic web application using one web server and one database server.
Technical requirements state the developer must write the business logic in Java, deploy to the
application server and push the presentation logic onto the web servers.
What are three characteristics of services in the proposed Service Oriented Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Services are coarse grained.
B. Services are finely grained.
C. Services are loosely coupled.
D. Services are tightly coupled.
E. Clients must be implemented in the Java technology.
F. Services are platform agnostic, network-addressable web APIs.
Answer: ACF

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NO.3 A developer plans to refactor some of the company's existing Java EE 5 business services, moving
them out of the existing monolithic application and into Web services.
What are two benefits of exposing existing Java EE 5 functionality as a Web service? (Choose two.)
A. improved manageability
B. more finely-grained
C. enhanced security
D. loose coupling of functionality
E. self-describing
F. automatic session management
Answer: DE

SUN   310-231   310-231   310-231 original questions   310-231

NO.4 Given the Java fragment and schema:
1. //-- Java code fragment
2. public class PurchaseOrder{
3. public javax.xml.datatype.XMLGregorianCalendar orderDate;
4. }
5. //-- Schema fragment
6. <xs:complexType name="purchaseOrder">
7. <xs:sequence>
8. <xs:element name="orderDate" type="xs:anySimpleType"
9. minOccurs="0"/>
10. </xs:sequence>
11. </xs:complexType>
Which two statements are true about .Net and WCF interoperability for this data? (Choose two.)
A. The GregorianCalendar maps to an equivalent date type in both Java and .Net.
B. .Net will generate code with the calendar as a string that functions as well as a date.
C. .Net will generate code with the calendar as a string that is not type equivalent.
D. Use of the @XmlSchemaType annotation causes .Net to properly map to a date.
E. Casting in the case of WSIT services is an effective approach for the WCF client.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 A student developer has created a new library of math functions to share with friends in a linear algebra
class. The developer is having difficulty getting people to come over to the dorm to see the new code
library, so he decides to deploy it as a Web service so that everyone can enjoy the features via the
Internet. One of the functions has this WSDL definition:
<portType name="MyMathLib">
<operation name="incCtr">
<input message="tns:incCtr"/>
</operation>
</portType>
Which two statements are true about this Web service? (Choose two.)
A. This is an asynchronous receive.
B. This is an asynchronous send.
C. The client must use SOAPFaultException to display any errors.
D. It must send a SOAP fault back to the sender.
E. It must NOT send a SOAP fault back to the sender.
Answer: BE

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NO.6 }
Assume Reliable Messaging is used and the code is correct except for what is missing at line 10.
Which code fragment must be placed at line 10?
A. Close the port object with ((Closeable)port).close(); after testing result is positive.
B. Close the port with port.close();
C. Closing the port object is optional, but port.close(); will work.
D. Close the port object with ((Closeable)port).close();
Answer: D

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12. Which two statements are true about Java clients that use a security token service (STS) supported
by the security features of WSIT? (Choose two.)
A. The client only requires a keystore.
B. STS requires a default user name configuration.
C. Using an STS-issued token requires a keystore and a truststore.
D. HTTPS must be configured.
E. An authorized client receives a token digitally signed by the STS.
Answer: CE

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13. A developer who recently added message optimization support to the company's Web services is
tasked with explaining how the next crop of WSIT client applications will use the feature.
Which statement is true?
A. Client developers should have experience with the SAAJ and MIME types to use MTOM with the
service.
B. The clients should use the service WSDL to discover and satisfy the interoperability requirements.
C. Adding message optimization is a manual step when the WSDL is available on HTTPS.
D. The encryption for optimization requires a client keystore.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A company is building a customer relationship management system that is to be deployed on a
customer's network, and they want software functions to be reused and combined in different modules in
the system. The Director of Technology has determined that the new system should utilize both Web
services and a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA).
Which two statements about Web services in an SOA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A Web service must be discovered from a UDDI registry in an SOA.
B. SOA and Web services both use the HTTP protocol at the transport layer.
C. A Web service must publish itself to a UDDI registry to become part of an SOA.
D. SOA is a way to design a system and Web services are a possible implementation.
E. SOA is used for stateless invocations, and Web services for stateful invocations.
F. SOA emphasizes the concept of service encapsulation and Web services fulfill a service contract.
Answer: DF

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NO.8 A developer must describe a message that contains multiple parts using non-primitive data types.
Which two code fragments produce equivalent composite message structure definitions? (Choose two.)
A. <types>
<schema .... >
<complexType name="FOO" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<element name="FOOType">
.
.
.
</element >
<complexType name="BAR" type="tns:BARType"/>
<element name="BARType">
.
.
.
</element >
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="FOO" complexType="tns:FOO"/>
<part name="BAR" complexType="tns:BAR"/>
</message>
B. <types>
<schema .... >
<element name="FOO" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<complexType name="FOOType">
.
.
.
</complexType>
<element name="BAR" type="tns:BARType"/>
<complexType name="BARType">
.
.
.
</complexType>
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="FOO" element="tns:FOO"/>
<part name="BAR" element="tns:BAR"/>
</message>
C. <types>
<schema .... >
.
.
.
<complexType name="Composite">
<choice>
<element name="FOO" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<element name="BAR" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="tns:BARType"/>
</choice>
</complexType>
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="composite" type="Composite"/>
</message>
D. <types>
<schema .... >
.
.
.
<complexType name="Composite">
<choice>
<element name="FOO" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" type="tns:FOOType"/>
<element name="BAR" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="tns:BARType"/>
</choice>
</complexType>
</schema>
</types>
<message name="FOO">
<part name="composite" type="tns:Composite"/>
</message>
Answer: BD

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NO.9 According to the WS-I Basic Profile 1.1, which two statements are true about the targetNamespace
attribute for xsd:schema elements that are children of WSDL 1.1 type element? (Choose two.)
A. Its value must be valid unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.
B. Its value must be empty unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.
C. It should have same the value as the namespace attribute on the wsdl:import element in a document
being imported.
D. It must have same the value as the namespace attribute on the wsdl:import element in a document
being imported.
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Given the Java fragment and schema:
1. //-- Java code fragment
2. public enum USState {MA, NH}
3. //-- Schema fragment
4. <xs:simpleType name=xsState?
5. <xs:restriction base=xs:string?
6. <xs:enumeration value=NH?/>
7. <xs:enumeration value=MA?/>
8. </xs:restriction>
9. </xs:simpleType>
10. // .NET auto generated code from schema
11. public enum usState { NH, MA }
Which statement is true about .Net and WCF interoperability for this data?
A. Based on the fragment, enumerations map well between Java and .Net.
B. The subtle differences in the variable names make it clear these enumerations are NOT interoperable.
C. The XML schema reveals the type on the enumeration is lost across the platforms.
D. This exchange would be interoperable if the annotation @XmlEnum was applied to the Java method.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A developer is analyzing an existing Web service with performance problems. The analysis reveals
the service employs SOAP over HTTP. When the size of the encoded binary files grew with changing
business requirements, the service slowed.
What are two effective solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Separating the XML and binary content with WS-Filtering implemented in WSIT will improve efficiency.
B. XML documents larger than 1 KB with binary encoding should be optimized.
C. WS-Addressing can ease congestion by routing messages over other protocols.
D. For existing services, the most effective solution is to increase the available bandwidth.
E. MTOM can reduce both processing and bandwidth required by SOAP with attachments.
Answer: BE

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NO.12 A company's new investment management Java application and a legacy stock trader application
need to communicate, but they use different JMS implementations. A developer decides to implement a
JMS bridge to solve the problem.
Which two advantages does this pattern provide? (Choose two.)
A. It converts the interface of a class into another interface that clients expect.
B. It decouples an abstraction from its implementation so that the two can vary independently.
C. It dynamically attaches additional responsibilities to an object.
D. It optimizes network traffic.
E. It is vendor independent.
Answer: BE

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about the role of XML schemas in Web services? (Choose two.)
A. DTDs provide stricter data typing than XML schemas.
B. XML schemas can be used to validate the organization of XML documents.
C. XML schemas contain a vocabulary, content model and data types.
D. DTDs are easier to map to Java than XML schemas, and so remain more popular.
E. The W3C recommends that XML schemas be referred to as XSD.
F. The W3C has designated that XML schemas be referred to as WXS.
Answer: BC

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NO.14 A team of developers is describing a set of endpoints in their new SOA application.
Given the WSDL extract:
<service name="InventoryServices">
<port name="PurchaseOrder" binding="tns:POBinding">
<soap:address location="http://192.168.0.2:8080/inventory"/>
</port>
<port name="Invoice" binding="tns:InvoiceBinding">
<soap:address location="http://192.168.0.2:8080/inventory"/>
</port>
</service>
Which statement is true about this WSDL extract?
A. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port element names are different.
B. The extract is NOT WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port elements point to the same
location.
C. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because both port elements point to different binding
elements.
D. The extract is NOT WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 compliant because it contains two port elements in the same
service.
E. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 conformant because both port element names are different.
F. The extract is WS-I Basic Profile 1.1 conformant because the port, binding, and service element
combinations are unique.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A developer is creating an XML schema using the xsd:all operator.
Given the code:
<types>
<schema targetNamespace="http://sun.cert/types"
xmlns:tns="http://sun.cert/types"
xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xsd:complexType name="Person">
<xsd:all>
<!-- insert code here -->
</xsd:all>
</xsd:complexType>
</schema>
</types>
Which two element definitions, when inserted into the given schema fragment, result in a correct schema
type definition? (Choose two.)
A. <xsd:element name="first" type="xsd:string"/>
B. <xsd:element name="items" type="xsd:long" maxOccurs="5"/>
C. <xsd:element name="last" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/>
D. <xsd:element name="first" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="5"/>
E. <xsd:element name="last" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="5"/>
F. <xsd:element name="ssn" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="unlimited"/>
Answer: AC

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NO.16 A company uses Web services to exchange mortgage and credit data as well as digital versions of
associated documents. The data is confidential and it is common for the service and client to exchange
applications, credit results, reports and more in a request/response format. Recently, the company has
become concerned about the substantial cost of processing and message encryption with a PKI
approach.
What can be done to cut costs?
A. use MTOM to optimize the messages and provide data confidentiality via XML Digital Signature
B. because of the weak adoption of WS-SecureConversation on Java platforms, consider using Kerberos
C. use HTTPS as it is both economical and adequate
D. use WS-SecureConversation and MTOM to reduce the processing overhead
Answer: D

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NO.17 The WSIT project implements a number of WS-* specifications to aid developers in creating secure and
interoperable services.
What are two parts of the WS-specifications? (Choose two.)
A. WS-ReliableMessaging
B. WS-Bootstrapping
C. WS-Eventing
D. WS-Policy
E. WS-WSITrust
Answer: AD

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NO.18 A team of developers is designing RESTful Web services for a new application.
What are three properties of the services? (Choose three.)
A. They can be stateful.
B. They can be stateless.
C. Components communicate by exchanging representations of the resource.
D. Components communicate by directly performing operations on the resource.
E. They require WSDL service API definitions.
F. Responses can be labeled as cacheable or non-cacheable.
Answer: BCF

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NO.19 Given:
1. try { // Call Web service Operation
2. org.me.calculator.client.CalculatorWS port =
3. service.getCalculatorWSPort();
4. // TODO initialize WS operation arguments here
5. int i = 3;
6. int j = 4;
7. // TODO process result here
8. int result = port.add(i, j);
9. out.println("<p>Result: " + result);
10.
11. } catch (Exception ex) {

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