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Exam Code: C-BOWI-30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 139 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 Which three statements about the If() function are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Values within the function must be in quotes.
B. The function can be used to create a variable.
C. The function can contain an aggregate function.
D. Then and Else keywords can be used within the function instead of the semicolon.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which method can you use to change the object qualification of an object within Web
Intelligence Rich Client?
A. In the Query panel, select the qualification.
B. In the Document Properties, select the qualification.
C. In Query View, right-click and select the qualification.
D. Select the object, right-click and select the qualification.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which four Report Elements can you select from the Templates tab of Web Intelligence?
(Choose four.)
A. Data
B. Report
C. Tables
D. Charts
E. Free-standing cells
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.4 Which two are benefits of creating queries from existing queries? (Choose two.)
A. Improved query security
B. Accurate duplication of query parameters
C. Improved performance of query execution
D. Reduced creation time for complex reports
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool supports Offline Mode logins?
A. InfoView
B. Java Panel
C. Interactive Panel
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two properties can you set in the hyperlink dialog box when you create a hyperlink to a
document?
(Choose two.)
A. Refresh on open
B. Color and font style for the link
C. Drill level for the target document
D. Link to a specific area in the document
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which two search criteria are valid when using Delegated List of Values? (Choose two.)
A. a*
B. *a
C. a%
D. %a
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object
should you use to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A. Sum
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two are benefits of using breaks? (Choose two.)
A. Creates a navigation map
B. Makes the table block easier to read
C. Splits the block into smaller table blocks
D. Enables the use of subtotals in one block
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: C_TBW45_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in their SAP
NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which of the following are valid navigation steps in reporting in SAP NetWeaver BI? (Choose three)
A. Swap one characteristic with another.
B. Filter on a specific characteristic value.
C. Return to Start.
D. Sum and Filter.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is a potential
conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area occupied by
the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second query.
Answer: C

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NO.7 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static snap-shots of
data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets
E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a broadcasting
distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Characteristic value variables...
A. ...are created in the query definition and are therefore only available in that query definition.
B. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of the
same InfoProvider.
C. ...are created for a characteristic in the query definition and are available for all query definitions of
InfoProviders containing this characteristic.
D. ...can be created for global use on an InfoProvider level, and can be created for local use in the query
definition.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this scenario, which
of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

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NO.12 Where can variables be created? (Choose two)
A. In the query definition where they are needed.
B. In the BEx Web Application Designer, in the "Data Provider" field.
C. While using a web browser to view query results.
D. When defining exceptions and conditions.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements regarding BEx Query Designer are correct? (Choose three)
A. Before defining a formula, you must ensure you have already created any restricted key figures that will
be referenced in the formula.
B. You can only drag and drop multiple characteristics into the query definition if they come from the same
dimension.
C. You can save a query that contains errors.
D. If a query contains errors, the system provides information to help you correct them, including menu
options that may be suitable.
E. You can maintain many of the properties of multiple characteristics or key figures simultaneously.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 Why are variables used in queries? (Choose three)
A. To limit the scope of a report and improve performance.
B. To improve the reliability of the results.
C. To limit the scope of a report and make it more targeted to a user or group of users.
D. To reduce the number of query definitions by having one query satisfy the needs of many users.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of the following
formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: P_ADM_SEC_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which areas in the SAP environment does the SAP Security Optimization Self Service check?
A. SAPouttab (SAPRouter)
B. WGate and AGate configuration (SAP ITS)
C. SSL check for the SAP J2EE Engine
D. Customized settings in the NW AS ABAP environment
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential loss.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message server.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory server. To simplify
the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now there are plans
to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the following statements are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory server.
Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory server is to
open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP specific PI
adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA and the LDAP
provider.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the URL path.
B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.
C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.
D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.
E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: C_SRM_70
Exam Name: SAP (SUPPLIER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT WITH SAP SRM 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the account
assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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NO.2 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which mode in the MDM Data Manager allows you to assign attributes to categories in a hierarchy?
A. Taxonomy mode
B. Record mode
C. Matching mode
D. Hierarchy mode
Answer: A

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NO.4 What can be used in MDM Data Manager to calculate the percentage of a price change for catalog
items?
A. Assignments
B. Validations
C. Matching rules
D. Transformations
Answer: A

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NO.5 What can be used to give a supplier an advantage in a live auction?
A. Cascading line items
B. Lotting
C. Reference price
D. Factored-cost bidding
Answer: D

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NO.6 For which kind of auctions do you use proxy bidding?
A. For auctions without lots
B. For auctions without overall best bid validation
C. For auctions with bid decrements at the auction header
D. For auctions without reserve price
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which SAP MDM component is used to schedule automated data imports?
A. MDM Import Manager
B. MDM Server
C. MDM Import Server
D. MDM Connector
Answer: C

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NO.8 Accounting data is supplied according to the SAP SRM system configuration.
For which shopping carts is this data ignored?
A. For shopping carts which are subject to a purchaser completion workflow
B. For shopping carts in the extended classic scenario
C. For shopping carts referring to procurement cards
D. For shopping carts for direct material
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which documents are created for an invoice entered for a local purchase order in the standalone
scenario?
A. Accounting document in SRM
B. Invoice in ERP
C. Invoice in SRM
D. Accounting document in ERP
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Where is the setting that enables a purchaser to enter a bid on behalf of a supplier?
A. Business Partner
B. Implementation Guide (IMG)
C. Vendor Group
D. Organization Plan
Answer: A

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NO.11 You can transfer lookup data from ERP and SRM to SRM-MDM. What data can only be transferred
from ERP to SRM-MDM?
A. Product categories
B. UOM ISO codes
C. Purchasing organizations
D. Currencies
Answer: C

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NO.12 What control setting is maintained in the transaction type of an RFx?
A. Allow automatic extension
B. Allow surrogate bidding
C. Allow multiple currencies
D. Allow bidders to add new items
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which item data can be defined prior to the start of a live auction? (Choose two)
A. Reserve price
B. Binding period
C. Automatic extension
D. Reference price
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 What is used in MDM Import Manager to determine whether records are new or already exist in the
repository?
A. Value Conversion
B. Default Import Action
C. Record Filtering
D. Matching Field(s)
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which follow-on documents can be the result of an SRM confirmation of goods in the classic scenario.?
A. Acknowledgement and inbound delivery
B. Material document and accounting document
C. Inbound delivery and material documents
D. Accounting document and inbound delivery
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C-BOSUP-90
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution
Manager installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to
reproduce the issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in
one message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much
until more information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP
systems?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: D

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NO.10 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: C-TFIN52-65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 Which of the following objects can you post to via the cash journal? (Choose two)
A. Asset master
B. Accrual Engine
C. Customer
D. One-time customer
E. Material master
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You want to use external number assignment for specific document types.
What is the special feature of external number assignment?
A. The numbers can be alphanumeric.
B. The number ranges can overlap.
C. The number ranges can be used across all company codes.
D. The system issues the numbers automatically.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following lists can be printed to help you edit a dunning proposal?
(Choose two)
A. Condensed master data
B. Blocked accounts
C. Blocked line items
D. Sales statistics
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company cost accounting? (Choose
two)
A. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
B. The same fiscal year is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same currency is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What do you define when you configure a dunning procedure?
A. Dunning levels and the language of the dunning note
B. Dunning levels and account determination to post dunning interest
C. Dunning charges for each dunning level and customers to be dunned
D. Dunning levels and dunning charges for each dunning level
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of line items of an FI document?
A. Unlimited
B. 999
C. 99
D. 9999
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer runs an SAP ERP system with New General Ledger Accounting
activated.
What do you need to do for Profit Center updates to be part of the general ledger?
A. Activate transfer prices in Profit Center Accounting.
B. Set up the same group currency for all company codes and profit centers.
C. Deactivate document splitting for profit centers.
D. Assign the Profit Center Update scenario to the ledger.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What does the posting key control.? (Choose three)
A. Account type
B. Document type
C. Field status
D. Debit/credit indicator
E. Number range
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 If a vendor is also a customer, it is possible to clear both roles against each other.
Which settings are necessary to implement this? (Choose two)
A. The "Clearing with Vendor" field must be selected in the customer account, and the
corresponding field
must be selected in the vendor account.
B. The vendor and the customer must be assigned to the same group account.
C. The vendor number must be entered in the customer account or the customer number
must be entered
in the vendor account.
D. The payment program must be set up to allow debit checks for vendors and credit checks
for
customers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 In a payment run, the data entered for a payment method in the document may differ
from the master
data.
How is this resolved by the system?
A. Document data overrides master data.
B. The payment run stops and the system issues an error message.
C. The payment run temporarily stops, and the system prompts you to correct the data. After
you have
corrected the data, the payment run continues.
D. Master data overrides document data.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C-TADM53-70
Exam Name: SAP (System Administration (MS SQL DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 After the installation of an SAP ECC 6.0 three-system landscape, you plan to apply a
Support Package
stack to the Development system. Which statements concerning support packages for ABAP
based SAP
Systems are true? (Choose two)
A. To use the SPAM transaction, you need to configure the transport environment with STMS
in the client
000.
B. If there are modification adjustments necessary, transaction SPAM does not start the
import. You need
to perform these adjustments before importing the Support Package.
C. To use the SPAM, a valid transport landscape must have been created.
D. To use the SPAM transaction, you need to configure the transport environment with
transaction STMS
in the client 066 with user DDIC.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
(Choose two)
A. Programs
B. Buffer areas
C. Screens (Dynpros)
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the
'System change option'
in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two)
A. Not modifiable
B. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
C. Original objects modifiable
D. Repaired objects modifiable
E. Modifiable
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You want to use the Change and Transport System (CTS) to perform transports of non-
ABAP objects
into non-ABAP systems. Which configuration settings are necessary for this?
A. The transport domain controller system must be based on SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 SP
Stack 12 or
higher.
B. You must use client-dependent transport routes for all systems in your transport domain.
C. You need to adjust certain tp parameters for the non-ABAP systems in question.
D. The CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 After establishing a three-system landscape transport environment for SAP systems
based on AS ABAP,
a developer has released a transport request in the DEV system. You now receive a mail
with the
transport request number from the developer and your job is to import this request into the
QAS system.
However, even after pressing the refresh button several times, the import queue of the QAS
systems
seems to be empty. Which of the following are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose
two)
A. The systems DEV and QAS belong to different transport groups.
B. The repository objects in this transport request belong to a package (formerly development
class) that
points to a transport layer, which in turn does not point to the QAS system.
C. You do not have the necessary authorizations to refresh the import queue of the QAS
system.
D. A virtual system exists in your transport landscape. Once you have a virtual system in your
transport
landscape the import buffers are empty.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 The customer has decided to implement a three system landscape for SAP ECC 6.0. A
lot of
customizing and development work must be done before the SAP landscape goes live.
Someone has
recommended using virtual systems in the beginning, instead of buying physical hardware.
Which
statements regarding virtual systems are true? (Choose three)
A. Virtual systems are used to save money in the beginning of a project. Another side-effect
is that the
productive SAP system can always be installed on the newest hardware technology.
B. Virtual systems are mainly used to simulate the correctness of transport routes.
C. The <SID> of the virtual system should be the same as the planned physical system.
D. Virtual systems are used in the transport environment like physical systems. Transport
buffers,
command files and data files are created.
E. Virtual systems in the SAP transport environment are only used together with hypervisor
technologies
from different third-party vendors.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which features are created automatically once you define a transport domain controller
in an
(ABAP-based) SAP landscape? (Choose four)
A. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the file system.
B. The TMS configuration is stored in the database and the file system.
C. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the database.
D. The user TMSADM is created.
E. The RFC destinations required for the TMS are generated.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.8 Which of the following statements concerning the Change and Transport System are
correct? (Choose two)
A. The transport directory is given by the parameter DIR_TRANS.
B. Small corrections on ABAP programs can be done safely in the production system.
C. Newly created (and empty) customizing change requests always have one or more tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which program, on the operating system level, performs and controls transports
between ABAP based
SAP-systems? Note that this program is controlled by your actions, for example in
transactions SE09
(Transport Organizer) and STMS (Transport Management System).
A. transport.exe
B. RDDIMPDP.bat
C. import.exe
D. RDDEXPPP.exe
E. tp.exe
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which of the following terms are correlated to the (ABAP-based) SAP system
monitoring infrastructure?
(Choose two)
A. Alert Memory
B. Alert Server
C. Data Supplier
D. Monitoring Tree Element
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based
monitoring are true?
(Choose two)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by
CCMS
monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched
by using
operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own
monitor
definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which of the following is true when creating new clients within an SAP System based
on AS ABAP (for
example, SAP ECC).?
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are automatically copied to the
new client
using the client copy tool.
B. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of
the user
initiating the copy.
D. The client transport tool can be used to transfer the same source client, simultaneously,
from one SAP
System to multiple other SAP systems in a single action.
E. The client copy can be accelerated by using several dialog work processes in parallel.
Answer: E

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NO.13 Concerning some (CCMS) monitoring terminology, which of the following statements
are correct?
(Choose three)
A. Each MTE can only be used in exactly one customer-defined monitor definition at a time.
B. Each monitoring attribute is assigned to exactly one monitoring object.
C. A monitoring attribute is also a monitoring tree element (MTE).
D. A monitoring object can have more than one assigned monitoring attribute.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 How many clients can exist per AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The maximum numberis 1000 clients per SAP system
B. As many as you want
C. The number of clients per system is limited to 500
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding the client concept and the client copy tools
in ABAP-based
SAP Systems (for example, SAP ECC) are true? (Choose three)
A. Application data can only be copied from one client to another, when all client-specific
customizing is
also copied.
B. Clients can be copied between SAP Systems of the same release.
C. Client-independent customizing is always automatically copied between clients.
D. User master records cannot be copied between clients.
E. Clients can be copied within a single SAP System.
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: C-GRCAC-10
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Access Control 10.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-10

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NO.1 Your customer wants a manager to fulfill both MSMP workflow agent purposes.
How do you configure this?
A. Maintain the manager agent twice, once for each purpose, using the same agent ID.
B. Maintain the manager agent once and assign both purposes to it without using an agent ID.
C. Maintain the manager agent twice, once for each purpose, using different agent IDs.
D. Maintain the manager agent once and assign both purposes to it using the same agent ID.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer wants to eliminate false positives from their risk analysis results.
How must you configure Access Control to include organizational value checks when performing a
risk analysis? (Choose two)
A. Configure organization rules for each relevant function.
B. Update the functions that contain each relevant action by activating the fields for the required
permissions and maintaining a value for each specific organization.
C. Configure organization rules for each relevant risk.
D. Update the functions that contain each relevant action by activating the fields for the required
permissions.
E. Configure organization level system parameters to incorporate all organization levels for each
relevant risk.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following objects can you maintain in the "Maintain Paths" work area of MSMP
workflow configuration? (Choose three)
A. Paths
B. Path versions
C. Rules for path mappings
D. Stage notification settings
E. Stages
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Which configuration parameters determine the content of the log generated by the SPM Log
Synch job? (Choose three)
A. Enable Risk Change log (1002)
B. Enable Authorization Logging (1100)
C. Retrieve System log (4004)
D. Retrieve OS Command log (4006)
E. Retrieve Audit log (4005)
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 What does assigning the Logical Group (SOD-LOG) type to a connector group allow you to do?
A. Run a cross-system analysis.
B. Use the connector group for transports to the target system.
C. Monitor the target system.
D. Use the connector group as a business role management landscape.
Answer: D

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9. Who approves the review of the periodic segregation of duties?
A. Mitigation monitors
B. Role owners
C. Mitigation approvers
D. Risk owners
Answer: D

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10. How are lines and columns linked in a BRFplus initiator decision table?
A. A column to a column through a logical OR
B. A column to a line through a logical OR
C. A column to a column through a logical AND
D. A line to a line through a logical AND
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your customer has created a custom transaction code ZFB10N by copying transaction FB10
and
implementing a user exit.
How can you incorporate the customer enhancement into the global rule set so that it will be
available for Risk Analysis?
A. Update security permissions in all relevant authorization objects, maintain the custom program
name in all relevant functions, and generate the access rules.
B. Update all relevant functions with ZFB10N, maintain the permission values for all relevant
authorization objects, and generate the access rules.
C. Update all relevant functions with ZFB10N, maintain the permission values in the relevant
access risk, and generate the global rule set.
D. Update the relevant access risk with ZFB10N, maintain access rules in all relevant functions,
and generate the global rule set.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What do you mitigate using Access Control?
A. Roles
B. Users
C. Risks
D. Functions
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have identified some risks that need to be defined as cross-system risks. How do you
configure your system to enable cross-system risk analysis?
A. 1. Set the analysis scope of the function to cross-system.
2. Create cross-system type connectors.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the appropriate connector group.
4. Generate rules.
B. 1. Set the analysis scope of the risk to cross-system.
2. Create cross-system type connectors.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the appropriate connector group.
4. Generate rules.
C. 1. Set the analysis scope of the risk to cross-system.
2. Create a cross-system type connector group.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the connector group.
4. Generate rules.
D. 1. Set the analysis scope of the function to cross-system.
2. Create a cross-system type connector group.
3. Assign the corresponding connectors to the connector group.
4. Generate rules.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C-TFIN52-05
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 299 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-18

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NO.1 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the
asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.2 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.4 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.5 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program
configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to
a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure
and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

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NO.11 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured
according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.12 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the
customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master
record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.14 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be
defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.15 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset
accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down
payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for
payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block
in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.18 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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NO.19 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign
currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options
exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.21 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.22 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.23 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.24 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.25 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share
number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.26 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can
choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.27 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is
always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit
and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the
financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you
are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement,
not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.29 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are
correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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