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Exam Code: 156-915.76
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Update Blade)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 324 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-17

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NO.1 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.2 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.4 To force clients to use integrity Security Workspace when accessing sensitive applications,
the Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security
Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York
DMZ. How is this possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques like using escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout,
like rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network
without anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature
updates and well-turned anomaly algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer
100 % protection.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.7 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP , etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.9 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator
MUST:
A. Create an internal user in the admin portal.
B. Install an R76 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate from Smart Dashboard
D. Store the client certificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and
accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should
be taken to achieve that?
-Use same hard drive for database directory, log files and temporary directory -Use Consolidation
Rules -Limit logging to blocked traffic only -Using Multiple Database Tables
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.11 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.12 You just upgraded to R76 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want to enable all critical
protections while keeping the rate of false positively very low. How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is based on policies, but it has no ability to calculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of false positives.
B. This can't be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes a high rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the ability to activate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense, this can be achieved by activating all the critical checks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.13 After repairing a Smart Workflow session:
A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started
B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted
C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started
D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started
Answer: B

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NO.14 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicago using Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicago is
not detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup.
Analyze the output below and determine how Matt corrects the problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-Chicago Security Gateway to the Chicago_Profile.
B. Matt should the Chicago_Profile to use Protect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create the Chicago_Profile and select Active protections manually instead of per
the IPS Policy.
D. Matt should activate the Chicago_Profile as it is currently not activated.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartEvent Server
D. Smart Dashboard
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-310
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSE NG)
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Total Q&A: 398 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE of the relationship between the RemoteAccess VPN
Community and the Security Policy Rule Base?
A. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to allow access to
protected resources.
B. The RemoteAccess VPN Community is used to allow access to protected resources.
The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections.
C. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. The
RemoteAccess VPN Community applies only SecureClient.
D. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. Security
Policy Rules are not defined for SecuRemote.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are importing a URI specification file from the Match tab on the URI Resource Properties screen.
Where is the editable URI specification file stored?
A. Policy Server
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Enforcement Module
D. SmartCenter Server
E. Enterprise Log Module
Answer: D

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NO.3 Ken us assisting a user whose SecurityClient password has expired. The SecureClient user can no
longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

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NO.4 If the Use Aggressive Mode check box in the IKE Properties dialogue box is
enabled:
A. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
B. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
C. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
D. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
E. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 3 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements BEST explains the difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and
alerts?
The difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and alerts is that:
A. Log entries contain detailed information about traffic. Alerts contain only brief descriptions of problems.
And links to the appropriate log entries.
B. Log entries are recorded in SmartView Tracker, and are persistent. Alerts appear only in SmartView
Status,
and are not persistent.
C. Logs are recorded sequentially, by date and time received. Alerts are arranged by priority and
magnitude.
D. Logging allows a Security Administrator to view historical connection information. Alerts are real-time
and
can be applied to a Security Policy's predefined tracking properties.
E. Logs are generated for explicit rules, defined by Security Administrators in the Security Policy. Alerts
are
automatically generated by implicit rules, created as a result of Global Properties settings.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from sending corporate
files to external FTP Servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
B. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
D. Block FTP_PASV.
E. Block all FTP traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The
_______ algorithm determines the load of each physical server and requires a Load Measuring
Agent be installed on each server.
A. Server Load
B. Server Relay
C. Round Robin
D. Domain
E. Round Trip
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a method used to configure SIP?
A. With SIP Proxies.
B. With a SIP Gatekeeper to a network without a proxy.
C. From a network without a proxy to a network with a proxy.
D. With a proxy for internal communications.
E. Without SIP Proxies.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Dr Bill is setting up a new VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. The Rule Base
is configured to allow all traffic, and the Enforcement Module is set up as shown in
the screen capture below. Dr bill cannot get the new system to pass any traffic.
What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
System specifications:
1. Processor: 2.2 GHz
2. RAM: 256 MB
3. Hard Disk: 10 GB
4. OS: Windows 2000 Server
Results of ipconfig/all
View the following exhibit for the results of ipconfig/all.
A. Routing is not properly configured.
B. The machine does not have enough RAM.
C. The processor is not fast enough.
D. The operating system is not supported.
E. The Rule Base is blocking traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Exhibit
Jacob configured a meshed VPN Community, with VPN properties set as shown below. Which of the
following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Jacob is using the default VPN property settings for a VPN-1/FireWall-1 meshed VPN Community.
B. Jacob's community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key
VPN-1/FireWall-1 supports.
C. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
D. If Jacob changes the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with: from AES-128 to 3DES, he will
increase
the encryption overhead.
E. If Jacob changes the setting, Perform key exchange encryption with: from 3DES to DES, he will
enhance the
VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
Answer: A, B

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NO.13 Which of the following is NOT a valid VPN configuration option available in the
VPN Manager of the Simplified Rule Base?
A. Point-to-Point
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Star with Meshed Center
E. Star
Answer: A

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NO.14 Ann would like to deploy H.323 with a gatekeeper and gateway on her internal network. This network
is
behind a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. Which of the following objects is NOT required to
configure VPN-1/FireWall-1 for H.323 in this scenario?
A. Address Range representing internal IP-addressed phones
B. Gatekeeper Node Object
C. Address range of external IP-addressed phones
D. Voice over IP (VoIP) Gateway Node Object
E. Voice over IP (VoIP) Domain Object
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are using Hybrid IKE for Client Authentication. SecureClient produces the error Certifcation is
badly signed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the appropriate
solution?
A. Under the firewall object > VPN > IKE Properties > Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid Mode is
not
selected. Select the Hybrid Mode option, and stop and restart the Enforcement Module.
B. The Distinguished Name used is too long. Change it to a shorter name in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
C. The certificate created by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is corrupt. Create a new certificate.
D. The SecureClient and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module to which it is attempting to connect are
running incompatible versions. Upgrade the SecureClient to NG with Application Intelligence.
E. The digital signature is missing. Add the digital signature to the certificate in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.17 If you are using SIP or SIP_ANY, and the Source or Destination is Any, which of the following
statements are TRUE concerning SIP Services? (Choose two)
If the Service is:
A. SIP_Any, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is SIP Proxy.
B. SIP_Any, and the Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (external only) is not a SIP Proxy.
C. SIP, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, unless
it is a
SIP Proxy.
D. SIP, and the Destination is ANY, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, so
it
must be a SIP Proxy.
E. SIP_Any, and the Source or Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is
always a SIP Proxy.
Answer: B, C

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NO.18 VPN-1/FireWall-1 can be configured to enable Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic in which
of the following environments? (Choose two)
A. SIP
B. Q.931
C. G.723
D. DiffServ QOS
E. H.323
Answer: A, E

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NO.19 Which of the following does NOT require definition for a Voice over IP (VoIP)
Domain SIP object?
A. SIP Proxy
B. IP Address Range
C. VoIP Gateway
D. Related Endpoint Domain
E. Name
Answer: A

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NO.20 Static passwords such as VPN-1 & FirwWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on the
desktop and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following does NOT clear the
password cache?
A. Receives a policy update.
B. Perform a disconnect from a connect mode.
C. Selects the Stop VPN 1 SecuRemote option from the File menu.
D. Selects the Erase Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
E. Reboots the computer.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following is NOT a feature or quality of a hash function?
A. It is mathematically infeasible to derive the original message from the message digest.
B. The hash function is irreversible.
C. It is mathematically infeasible for two different messages to produce the same message digest.
D. The hash function forms a two-way, secure communication.
E. Encrypted with the sender's RSA private key, the hash function forms the digital signature.
Answer: D

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NO.22 When you upgrade VPN-1/FireWall-1, what components are carried over to the new
version? (Choose two)
A. Licenses
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 database
C. OPSEC database
D. Backward Compatibility
E. Rule Base
Answer: A, B

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NO.23 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.24 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

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NO.25 Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
E. Adaptive
Answer: D

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NO.26 Vered is a Security Administrator preparing to migrate her organization's IKE VPNs from pre-shared
secrets to PKI with certificates. Vered's organization has client-to-site VPNs between SecureClients and
Enforcement Modules, and site-to-site VPNs between Enforcement Modules. Vered will use the
VPN-1/FireWall-1 Internal Certificate Authority (ICA), to generate and maintain certificates. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
Vered can:
A. Install and configure an OPSEC-certified Certificate Authority product. Vered cannot use the Internal
Certificate Authority (ICA) to accomplish this task.
B. Migrate the organization's site-to-site VPNs, but she cannot migrate the organization's client-to-site
VPNs.
C. Either migrate the PKI with certificates for her VPNs, or use the ICA for certificate generation and
maintenance. Vered cannot do both.
D. Migrate both the site-to-site VPNs and the client-to-site VPNs. She can use the ICA to generate and
maintain
certificates.
E. Migrate the organization's client-to-site VPNs, if she moves from SecureClient to SecuRemote. She
cannot
migrate the site-to-site VPNs.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following encryption algorithms supports a key length from 128-bits to 256-bits and is
outlined in the new Federal Information Processing Standard publication?
A. AES (Ridndael)
B. CAST Cipher
C. 3DES
D. DES
E. Blowfish
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between VPN Domains and VPN
Communities?
A. A VPN Domain is a network, or group of networks, protected by and Enforcement Module. A VPN
Community is a collection of VPN Domains and the VPN tunnels between them.
B.
A VPN Domain is a remote-access VPN, consisting of a group of SecureClients and their associated
Enforcement Module. A VPN Community is a collection of Enforcement Module-to-Enforcement Module
VPNSs.
C. VPN Domains are used in Microsoft environments, and allow VPN-1/FireWall1- to communicate with
Domain Controllers. VPN Communities are used in Unix environments, to allow VPN-1/FireWall-1 to
communicate with authentication servers.
D. VPN Domains specify encryption properties and access restrictions for users. VPN Communities detail
encryption properties and access restrictions, for machines and processes.
E. VPN Domains are used for Security Policies created in traditional mode. VPN Communities are used in
simplified mode. VPN Domains are not available, if simplified mode is used.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)?
A. Provides certificates for users and Security Administrators.
B. Generated certificates for HTTPS Web server.
C. Establishes SIC between OPSEC applications and Check Point products.
D. Authentications SecureClient traffic to Enforcement Modules for VPNs.
E. Establishes SIC between Check Point products.
Answer: B

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NO.30 All of the following are steps for implementing UFP, EXCEPT:
A. While the UFP Server is analyzing the requests, the Enforcement Module HTTP Proxy Server initiates
a
request to the destination. The HTTP Proxy server then waits for a response from the UFP Server before
allowing the request.
B. The client invokes a connection through the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module.
C. The Content Server inspects the URLs and returns the validation result message to the Enforcement
Module.
D. The Enforcement Module takes the action defined in the Rule Base for the resource.
E. The Security Server uses UFP to send the URL to a third-party UFP Server categorization.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-815
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 How many CMAs can each MDS manage?
A. Unlimited
B. 50
C. 500
D. 250
E. 200
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to
install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which
of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
<e ip="4-1.gif"></e>
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to
each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC
Answer: C

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NO.4 To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Answer: A

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NO.5 When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS IP address and MDS type
B. MDS Name and CMA IP address range
C. MDS Name and MDS type
D. MDS Name and MDS IP address
E. MDS IP address and CMA IP address range
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1
Answer: C

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NO.7 Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption?
A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used.
B. IKE with pre-shared secret
C. 256-bit SSL encryption
D. 128-bit SSL encryption
E. RSA encryption
Answer: D

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NO.8 The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.9 When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process,
which of the
following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager
Answer: D

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NO.10 All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed
by an MDS
Manager running with only the trial license?
A. 500
B. 1
C. 200
D. 5
E. 100
Answer: C

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NO.11 When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies.
What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator and the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.13 How many CLMs can each MDS MLM hold?
A. 225
B. unlimited
C. 50
D. 500
E. 250
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific
Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that
CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for
each configured
Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific
Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the
Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log
in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its
list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create
the CLM object,and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Answer: E

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NO.16 Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer
data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer
database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per
customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.
Answer: C

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NO.17 After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle
license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following
commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1
Answer: E

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NO.18 The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed,
enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. SVRSetup
B. sysconfig
C. cpconfig
D. SetupUtil
E. EVRSetup
Answer: A

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NO.19 As a Provider-1 Administrator, you are concerned about the security of your NOC. You decide to install
a NOC firewall and hire a firewall expert to administer it. Your firewall expert wants to institute some
security measures to increase the firewall's ability to protect the NOC. One of his ideas is to hide all of the
invalid IP addresses of the CMAs, by installing a Hide NAT Policy on the firewall. Will this plan work?
A. Yes, because the CMAs use virtual IP addresses, and they require a single valid IP address to manage
remote Security Gateways.
B. No, because Hide NAT does not allow remote Gateways to connect directly to the CMAs.
C. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of 0.0.0.0.
D. No, because VPN-1 NGX does not allow Administrators to configure Hide NAT on objects with
assigned virtual IP addresses.
E. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of the leading MDS interface.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Identify the following Provider-1 configuration:
A. NOC
B. ISP
C. Standard
D. Point-of-presence
E. MSP
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-315.71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 480 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.4 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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NO.7 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.14 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.15 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.19 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.20 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-915.70
Exam Name: CheckPoint (CCSE-R70-Upgrade)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 243 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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NO.9 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

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NO.13 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.14 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings. What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

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NO.15 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

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NO.19 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

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NO.21 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

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NO.23 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

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NO.24 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

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NO.25 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.26 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

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NO.27 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

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NO.28 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

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NO.30 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

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