2014年2月25日星期二

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Exam Code: 050-681
Exam Name: Novell (Novell network management:netware 6)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 192 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 NAT provides protection at the ______ layer of the OSI model.
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding the master replica? (Choose two)
A. It supports authentication.
B. It controls partition boundary changes.
C. It only contains the partition root object.
D. It cannot be created by the network administrator.
E. There can be multiple master replicas per partition.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Which eDirectory object's existence indicates that NLS is configured to run on a server and that the
server
is a License Service Provider (LSP)?
A. License unit object
B. License policy object
C. License container object
D. License certificate object
E. NSL_ LSP_servername object
Answer: E

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NO.4 What NLM is used to change traditional volumes to NSS volumes?
A. NSS.NLM
B. VCU.NLM
C. CONVOL.NLM
D. NSSCONV.NLM
E. CONVERT.NLM
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have lost volume SYS on your server in a single server network due to hard disk failure. What steps
must you take to restore the server? (Choose three)
A. Restore eDirectory
B. Restore the file system
C. Restore SERVERDATA.NDS
D. Repair or replace the failed hardware
E. Recover eDirectory information from a replica
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 What should be done after a server is upgraded to eDirectory 8.6?
A. Reboot the server.
B. Perform an eDirectory health check.
C. Delete the server object and recreate it.
D. Reinitialize the eDirectory database by entering the SET DSTRACE=*. command at the server console
prompt.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which security feature of NetWare prevents the time and date from being changed?
A. DSTRACE
B. Intruder lockout
C. SECURE CONSOLE
D. Console screensaver
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statements are true regarding eDirectory replicas? (Choose two)
A. A replica is required on all servers that exist in the eDirectory tree.
B. Replicas are stored in files contained in a hidden directory on volume SYS.
C. There are 3 types of replicas: master, read/write, and subordinate reference.
D. Replicas contain Directory data for objects within the boundaries of a partition.
E. Replicas are required on servers that will be single or primary reference servers.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 .When installing NetWare 6, if you choose the express installation method, what size will volume SYS
be?
A. 500 MB
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 4GB
E. 5GB
Answer: D

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NO.10 What function does LDAP Bulk Update/Replication Protocol (RBURP) serve when using ICE to import
an
LDIF file?
A. LBURP provides compatibility when eDirectory servers 8.5 and earlier.
B. LBURP allows transactions to be applied arbitrarily to increase speed.
C. LBURP allows ICE to send several update operations in a single request.
D. LBURP provides added functionality to ICE by allowing add and delete requests and modify requests.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What kind of volume is created by default during a new installation of NetWare 6?
A. NFS
B. NSS
C. Logical
D. Traditional
Answer: B

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NO.12 .From where can you access Schema Manager?
A. iMonitor
B. ConsoleOne
C. NWCONFIG.NLM
D. DSREPAIR.NLM
E. Server console promt
Answer: B

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NO.13 When performing an across-the-wire migration, what files are stored in the SYS:SYS.MIG directory?
A. The migration report and error log.
B. The SYS files that were not migrated.
C. The source server's original SYS directories and files.
D. The SYS files that were in use when the volume was copied.
E. Reports listing critical and non critical errors identified during the migration process.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which NetWare 6 user access component allows a user to log in to a NetWare server from a
Macintosh
workstation without the use of the NetWare client?
A. NFAP
B. iFolder
C. NetDrive
D. NetStorage
E. Web Access
Answer: A

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NO.15 .What corresponding eDirectory object must exist for each server that you want to use cryptographic
services?
A. Certificate key
B. Key access object
C. Key material object
D. Certificate authority
E. Key access partition
Answer: D

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NO.16 What happens when a user's public key certificate expires?
A. The user's public key, private key, and digital signature are deleted.
B. The Certificate Authority automatically re-issues a public key certificate if the user is still active.
C. The public and private keys remain intact but can no longer be used to encrypt and decrypt data.
D. The public and private keys can still be used for encryption but they are not guaranteed to be authentic.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .What complimentary resources are available online through the Novell web pages? (Choose three)
A. Product documentation
B. Product support forums
C. Incident-based electronic support
D. Novell Software Evaluation Library
E. Limited access to Abend Analysis System
Answer: ABE

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NO.18 Which tasks must you always perform when implementing DHCP? (Choose three)
A. Create a subnet
B. Create a Zone object
C. Create a DHCP server
D. Configure a NAT router
E. Configure an address range
F. Import a DHCP configuration
G. Export the DHCP configuration
Answer: ACE

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NO.19 .You have just run the REBUILD command on volume DATA.
Which file does REBUILD copy errors and transactions to, and what is that file located?A. DATA.NSS,
located at the root of SYS.
B. DATA.RLF, located at the root of SYS.
C. DATA.RLF, located at the root of DATA.
D. DATA.NSS, located at the root of DATA.
E. VOLUME.NSS, located at the root of DATA.
Answer: B

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NO.20 XXXX.COM changed departments. You updated XXXX.COM's user object to reflect her new phone
number.
What is sent to the other replicas of this partition regarding this change?
A. The entire partition
B. The phone number only
C. The XXXX.COM user object
D. The required fields of the user object
E. The container where the XXXX.COM object resides
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 050-691
Exam Name: Novell (Advanced novell network amnagement:netware 6.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 178 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which preconfigured report searches the entire tree, communicates with every NetWare server
it finds, and reports errors?
A.Agent Health
B.Obituary Listing
C.Object Statistics
D.Server Information
E.Service Advertising
Correct:D

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NO.2 Assuming the CD drive in your workstation is assigned drive letter D, where is the installation
file for the Server Consolidation Utility located?
A.D:\NWSC.EXE
B.D:\SERVCONS.EXE
C.D:\TOOLS\NWSC.EXE
D.D:\TOOLS\SERVCONS.EXE
E.D:\PRODUCTS\SERVCONS\NWSC.EXE
F.D:\PRODUCTS\SERVCONS\SERVCONS.EXE
Correct:E

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NO.3 Click the Point-and-Click button to begin. Click the option that allows you to view partition
synchronization information.
Correct:

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NO.4 While installing the Branch Office Appliance software, you are prompted to save the
configuration to a diskette that can be used later during the installation of other Appliances. If you
choose to do so, what filename is the configuration saved under?
A.AUTOEXEC.NCF
B.AUTOLOAD.CNF
C.AUTOLOAD.NBO
D.NBOCONFIG.NCF
E.NBOCONFIG.TXT
F.AUTOCONFIG.NCF
Correct:C

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NO.5 Your NetWare 6.5 server has been assigned the DNS name of da1.da.com. Which URL would you
use in a browser window to access the iMonitor service on this server?
A.http://da1.da.com:8009/nds-summary
B.http://da1.da.com:8009/edir-summary
C.https://da1.da.com:8009/nds-summary
D.https://da1.da.com:8008/nds-summary
E.https://da1.da.com:8009/edir-summary
F.https://da1.da.com:8008/edir-summary
Correct:C

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NO.6 You're troubleshooting a routing problem in your organization's network. To test a hypothesis,
you need to run the TRACERT command from one of your Windows XP workstations to trace the
route to corp.da.com with the maximum number of router hops constrained to 4. Which command
should you use to do this?
A.TRACERT -4 corp.da.com
B.TRACERT corp.da.com -4
C.TRACERT -H 4 corp.da.com
D.TRACERT -R 4 corp.da.com
E.TRACERT -A 4 corp.da.com
F.TRACERT corp.da.com -D 4
Correct:C

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NO.7 You have an NSS pool named APPS_POOL. You have taken 4 snapshots of it. What is the
default name assigned by NSS to the 4th snapshot of the pool?
A.APPS_POOL4
B.APPS_POOL-4
C.APPS_POOL_4
D.APPS_POOL_S4
E.APPS_POOL_S_4
F.APPS_POOL_4_S
Correct:D

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NO.8 Your organization has implemented ZENworks for Servers Tiered Electronic Distribution with
Nterprise Branch Office. To support this configuration, which IP port must be kept open on your
organization's firewall?
A.20
B.21
C.631
D.873
E.1299
F.2222
Correct:E

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NO.9 You want to split your DATA volume at the DATA:\USERS subdirectory level to the VOL1 volume
on DA1. DA1 is located in the .Contractors.DA container in the DA-TREE tree. Which command,
when issued from the server console, will do this?
A.VLMN SPLIT DATA:\USERS VOL1
B.VOLMN SPLIT DATA:\USERS VOL1
C.VLMN SPLIT DATA:\USERS VOL1 DA1.Contractors.DA.DA-TREE
D.VLMN SPLIT DATA:\USERS VOL1 .DA1.Contractors.DA.DA-TREE.
E.VOLMN SPLIT DATA:\USERS VOL1 .DA1.Contractors.DA.DA-TREE
F.VOLMN SPLIT DATA:\USERS VOL1 .DA1.Contractors.DA.DA-TREE.
Correct:F

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NO.10 You've configured a Branch Office system to use automatic user provisioning. When users
attempt to log into the Appliance for the first time, authentication fails. The Appliance is running
on a server with 512 MB of RAM, a Pentium III 1.13 GHz CPU, and a 40 GB hard disk drive. The
users are using Windows 2000 Professional with Novell Client 4.9 installed. What is causing the
problem?
A.The Appliance requires at least 1 GB of RAM.
B.The Appliance requires a Pentium IV or later CPU.
C.Novell Client 4.9 isn't compatible with Universal Password.
D.The workstations must be upgraded to Windows XP Professional.
E.NICI must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 before the first login.
F.Windows 2000 Service Pack 4 must be applied to each workstation.
G.NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 before the first login.
H.Novell Client 4.9 Support Pack 1 must be applied to each workstation.
Correct:G

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NO.11 Which RAID levels can be implemented with NSS? (Choose 2.)
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
E.4
F.5
G.6
H.7
Correct:A B

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NO.12 You need to restore an NSS logical volume that was deleted, but has not yet been purged. Click
the area of the graphic that allows you to accomplish this task.
Correct:

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NO.13 The DirXML driver is comprised of 2 components. What are they? (Choose 2.)
A.Join Engine
B.XML Interface
C.Publisher Filter
D.Subscriber Filter
E.eDirectory Interface
F.Application Native Interface
Correct:B F

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NO.14 Which method allows you to increase the amount of storage space on a server without adding
more storage devices?
A.Overbook the storage pool.
B.Increase the size of the storage pool.
C.Decrease the size of the storage pool.
D.Recreate the partitions that a storage pool contains.
Correct:A

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NO.15 Click the Point-and-Click button to begin. Click on the option that will allow you to check the
version of eDirectory on a server.
Correct:

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NO.16 Which command would you issue from the console of a NetWare 6.5 server to test its DNS
resolver configuration?
A.CONFIG
B.TCPCON
C.IPCONFIG
D.IFCONFIG
E.NSLOOKUP
F.DNSCONFIG
G.BINDCONFIG
Correct:E

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NO.17 While migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare 6.5 using a Windows 2000 Professional
workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed, the migration fails. Given that the destination server
has Universal Password deployed, what is the cause of the problem?
A.Universal Password requires Novell Client 4.9 or later.
B.Windows 2000 isn't compatible with Universal Password.
C.The Migration Wizard isn't compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
D.NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.83 to be compatible with Universal Password.
E.Novell Client 4.83 requires NICI 2.0.2 or later installed to be compatible with Universal Password.
Correct:A

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NO.18 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the TCPCON option you would select if you
wanted to view the MTU size your server is using.
Correct:

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NO.19 You're re-installing the Appliance software on your server. What will happen to your existing
user data?
A.All existing data will be lost when the appliance re-images the drive.
B.The installation program will ask if you want to delete or preserve the existing data.
C.The installation program will prompt you that the Appliance software already exists and will exit.
D.The installation program will save the existing data in the Sys:\System.bak file on the Appliance.
E.The existing data will be detected and copied to a new partition where it can be accessed when the
installation is complete.
Correct:B

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NO.20 When a DFS junction is created, the VLDB assigns the junction a unique ID. Where is this unique
ID stored? (Choose 2.)
A.In the VLDB
B.In ConsoleOne
C.In the volume's ACL
D.In the NetWare Registry
E.In the server's eDirectory object
F.In the volume's eDirectory object
G.In the Registry of the client workstations
Correct:A F

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Exam Name: Novell (Desktop Management with ZENworks for )
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which eDirectory design guidelines for NetWare should you follow when implementing
ZENworks for
Desktops? (Choose two)
A. Tier design guidelines
B. Tree design guidelines
C. Policy design guidelines
D. Server design guidelines
E. Replica design guidelines
Answer:B, E

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NO.2 Which tool can you use to remotely manage a workstation?
A. NWAdmin
B. RCONJ.EXE
C. DESKTOP4.EXE
D. Application explorer/launcher
E. The remote management agent
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD4) policies are cumulative policies? (Choose
two)
A. Windows Group policies
B. Dynamic Local User polices
C. Computer Extensible policies
D. Windows Desktop Preferences polices
Answer:A, C

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NO.4 .In relation to ZENworks for desktop 4, which tool is used to assign the necessary
rights for a user to remotely control a workstation?
A. Help desk wizard
B. Remote control wizard
C. Remote operator wizard
D. Remote management wizard
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which policy can have multiple instances for the same user policy package?
A. Novell iPrint policy
B. Remote control policy
C. User extensible policy
D. Scheduled action policy
E. Dynamic local user policy
Answer:D

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NO.6 In relation to a Windows group policy, which feature allows you to change the
policy preference to ensure that
workstation policies take precedence over user polices?
A. ZEN policy loopback
B. User policy loopback
C. Group policy loopback
D. Workstation policy loopback
Answer:C

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NO.7 You have a critical application that is being deployed to workstations and you
want to receive notification
if any workstation fails to install the application. You also want a list of
workstations that the application
is delivered to.
Which service location package policies should you configure to receive this
information? (Choose two)
A. XSLT policy
B. SMTP host policy
C. SNMP trap targets policy
D. ZENworks database policy
Answer:B, C

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NO.8 What objects can you use to set security parameters for remote management? (Choose
2.)
A. Alias
B. User
C. Group
D. Workstation
E. Server package
Answer:B, D

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NO.9 To configure user-defined policies using the ADM files for workstation objects,
which policy do you configure?
A. Remote control
B. Scheduled action
C. Computer extensible
D. Workstation imaging
E. ZENworks for Desktops management agent
Answer:C

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NO.10 The ZENworks for Desktop 4 web services architecture eliminates the need for which
component?
A. Firewall
B. Novell Client
C. ZENworks middle tier
D. ZENworks back-end server
Answer:B

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NO.11 HOTSPOT
Click the option in ConsoleOne you use to get real-time information about device
drivers on the
controlled workstation.
Answer:

NO.12 Exhibit.
What will happen if you select the Use as top of configuration tree box?
A. NAL will walk the tree all the way to the root object.
B. NAL will not walk the tree under the child container.
C. NAL will search eDirectory until it finds all container polices.
D. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for launcher configuration when it reaches
this container.
E. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for applications or polices when it reaches
this container.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which statements are true regarding ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD 4) policies?
(Choose two)
A. Policies are stored on the workstation.
B. Policies are grouped according to functional area.
C. Policies allow you to assign file system rights to users.
D. ZfD 4 allows the same type of policy to perform various actions according to a
specified schedule.
Answer:B, D

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NO.14 Which is true concerning ZENworks for Desktop 4 application folders? (Choose
three)
A. They can be created as a template object.
B. They can be created using an application object.
C. They can be created as an application folder object.
D. They are used to organize and distribute workstation images.
E. They are used to organize the applications you distribute to users through
Novell application launcher
(NAL).
Answer:B, C, E

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NO.15 Which of the following describes the ZENworks for Desktop 4 application browser?
A. A distributed application icon that is displayed in the system tray.
B. A web browser view that displays icons for distributed applications.
C. A standalone window that displays icons for distributed applications.
D. A distributed application icon that is displayed on the Windows desktop.
Answer:C

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Not B.Its not a web application

NO.16 When configuring a Workstation package, policies are available under 6 categories.
General, Win95-98,
WinNT-2000-XP, WinNT, Win2000, and WinXP.
What policies can be configured under the General polices category? (Choose two)
A. Help Desk
B. Client Config
C. Remote Control
D. Workstation Imaging
E. Computer Extensible
Answer:C, D

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NO.17 For an application to be distributed to a workstation, what defines the
information required to distribute it?
A. The application object
B. The application's .INI file
C. The application container
D. Novell application launcher (NAL)
Answer:A

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NO.18 What is the NetWare console command to verify that automatic workstation import
(AWI) is working
correctly?
A. JAVA -SHOW
B. ZENWSIMPORT
C. JAVA -ZENWSIMPORT
D. SHOW -ZENWSIMPORT
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which server package policy should you use to automatically place and name
workstation objects in the
eDirectory tree?
A. Rollup policy
B. Wake-on-LAN policy
C. Imaging server policy
D. Workstation import policy
Answer:D

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NO.20 You created a server policy package and associated it with a server object.
Where are the polices applied?
A. To all ZENworks for Desktops back-end servers-
B. To all objects in the tree that are valid types for the package.
C. To all objects on the server that are valid types for the package.
D. To all objects in the container that are valid types for the package.
Answer:C

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NO.21 Which remote management utility can you use to run applications on the managed
workstation from the
administrator workstation?
A. Diagnostics
B. File Transfer
C. Remote View
D. Remote Execute
E. Remote Wake Up
Answer:D

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NO.22 DRAG DROP
Rank the default precedence of each policy package in order, from highest to
lowest.
Answer:

NO.23 .By default, which policy package has highest precedence?
A. A policy package associated with a group object.
B. A policy package associated with the root object.
C. A policy package associated with an organization (O) object.
D. A policy package associated with an organization unit (OU) object.
Answer:A

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NO.24 Which utility do you use to access the Remote Operator Wizard?
A. StartX
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. ConsoleOne
Answer:D

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NO.25 What can the user package Novell iPrint policy do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set a printer as a default printer.
B. Install NIPP.EXE on the workstation.
C. Configure a printer for a workstation.
D. Install the iPrint client on a workstation.
Answer:A, D

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NO.26 Which configurations can be easily set using policies in the user package? (Choose
two)
A. Deploying applications across various LAN locations.
B. Tracking various types of hardware used in your organization.
C. Providing a full-access workstation environment for administrators.
D. Maintaining a workstation environment for users with special needs.
Answer:C, D

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NO.27 Which object can you associate with a workstation package?
A. User
B. Printer
C. Security
D. Container
E. Computer
Answer:D

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NO.28 You are using ZENworks for Desktop 4.
Which HTML file must be configured for remote users to access applications through
their browsers?
A. APPS
B. DOCS
C. INDEX
D. MYAPPS
E. MYDOCS
Answer:D

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NO.29 What is the benefit of implementing a search policy?
A. It allows you to search eDirectory for a specified user.
B. It limits how fat up the tree ZENworks looks for effective polices.
C. It allows outdated workstations to be easily located and removed.
D. It allows you to monitor events from outside the organization's network.
Answer:B

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NO.30 Which object can a service location package be associated with? (Choose one)
A. User object
B. Root object
C. Group object
D. Server object
E. Country object
F. Workstation object
G. Organizational unit object
Answer:G

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2014年2月23日星期日

Free download CompTIA certification JK0-U11 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: JK0-U11
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer D is incorrect. An AGP card is an older type of video card for PC's.

NO.2 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or
interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Bandwidth is a term that refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface.
Bandwidth (or digital bandwidth) is a measurement of how much data can be sent in a period of
time. It is a data rate measured in bits. The standard unit of digital bandwidth is bits per second
(bps). In radio communication,
bandwidth (analogue bandwidth) is the range of frequencies occupied by the radio signals. The
standard unit of analogue bandwidth is Hertz (Hz).
Answer D is incorrect. In Web site designing, branding refers to the look and feel of a Web site.
Branding helps in differentiating a site from its competitors and also helps the customer to develop
a relationship with the Web site. The look and feel of a Web site comes through logo, fonts, color
schemes, and symbols used in the Web site. The overall look of the Web site should be consistent.
Answer B is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an environment to boot computers
using a network interface independently of available data storage devices like hard disks or installed
operating systems. PXE is also known as Pre-Execution Environment.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is a term that refers to the unsolicited e-mails sent to a large number of
e-mail users. The number of such e-mails is increasing day by day, as most companies now prefer to
use e-mails for promoting their products. Because of these unsolicited e- mails, legitimate e-mails
take a much longer time to deliver to their destination. The attachments sent through spam may
also contain viruses. However, spam can be stopped by implementing spam filters on servers and
e-mail clients.

NO.3 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and
file encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A smart card is a credit card-sized device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory. It
is used to securely store public and private keys for log on, e- mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption. To use a smart card, a computer must have a smart card reader attached with it.

NO.4 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips
would you most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Both MicroDIMM and SO-DIMM come in a 144 pin configuration, and are used for laptops.

NO.5 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and
provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion cards to the computer.
These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser
cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer
motherboard instead of using riser cards.
Answer A is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion
slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal
computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such
as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total
of 46 pins.
Answer D is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed
by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as
modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi-channel audio, phone-line-based
networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise
interference through the physical separation of noise- sensitive elements from the motherboard's
communication systems.
Answer B is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable
devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the
older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD
card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm,
but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC
cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also
available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity
ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.

NO.6 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer A is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track locations
nd activities when using the device.
Answer B is incorrect. Usage management tool is a type of parental control that allows parents to
enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer D is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.

NO.7 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: D,B

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Explanation:
AGP and PCIe are the best slots for a video card. PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation
I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than
PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low-voltage differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It is
designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots. The bus is available in several different bus widths:
x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe
hardware will work on operating systems that support PCI. AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed
for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a
computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133
MB/second.
Answer C is incorrect. The Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion
bus designed as a superset of a 16-bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and
expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. EISA slots
are obsolete now.
Answer A is incorrect. PCIe and AGP slots are better than PCI slot for a video card.

NO.8 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista.
Which Windows utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Disk Management tool is used to alter, adjust, and configure partitions.

NO.9 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.
The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000
Professional client computer reports that he is unable to access some files on the hard disk.
However, he is able to successfully log on and access other files. What should Mark do to resolve
the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
In order to resolve the issue, Mark should check the file permissions for the user on the hard disk
drive. According to the question, the user is able to access other files on the hard disk. Hence, the
most likely cause of the issue is that the user does not have sufficient privileges on those files.
Answer A is incorrect. Logging off and then logging on will not help resolve the issue.
Answer D is incorrect. Checking the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility will not help, as the
issue is related to permissions.
Answer B is incorrect. According to the question, the user is able to successfully log on to the
computer. This indicates that his user account is already enabled. Hence, there is no need to enable
it.

NO.10 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act
1990? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or
purposes for which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or
unlawful processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
The Computer Misuse Act 1990 is an act of the UK Parliament which states the following statement:
Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale" (currently 5000). Unauthorized access with the intent
to commit or facilitate commission of further offences is punishable by 6 months/maximum fine on
summary conviction or 5 years/fine on indictment. Unauthorized modification of computer material
is subject to the same sentences as section 2 offences.
Answer B and C are incorrect. These two statements are stated in the Data Protection Act 1998.

NO.11 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol defined in the IEEE 802.11i standard
for wireless LANs (WLANs). It is designed to provide more secure encryption than the disreputably
weak Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). TKIP is the encryption method used in Wi-Fi Protected Access
(WPA), which replaced WEP in WLAN products. TKIP is a suite of algorithms to replace WEP without
requiring the replacement of legacy WLAN equipment. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but
wraps additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it. Like WEP , TKIP uses
the RC4 stream encryption algorithm as its basis.

NO.12 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups
have many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: D,C

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Explanation:
An Administrator user account has full permissions on the computer.
The Power Users group has many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users.
Power users can perform any tasks except those reserved for administrators.
Answer B is incorrect. A Standard user account has a minimal set of permissions.
Each account in standard user mode is designed to store a separate set of settings for users.
The users are allowed to launch applications, create new documents, and modify basic system
configurations.
Answer A is incorrect. A Guest account is designed to provide temporary access to computers.
It does not store user-specific profile settings permanently. This account is disabled by default.

NO.13 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose.

NO.14 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Windows Explorer is a file management tool. Windows Explorer is a dual-pane window that can be
used for file management.
File management includes copying, moving, renaming, and searching files and folders.
Windows Explorer displays the resources on the system and the tools available in the operating
system in a hierarchical form, in its left window-pane.
It displays the contents of the folder that is selected in the left window-pane, in its right window-
pane.
Windows Explorer can also be used for starting programs or accessing system resources such as a
printer.
It can be accessed in Windows through the Start menu as follows:
Start>Programs>Accessories>Windows Explorer
Answer B and C are incorrect.
Device Manager and MSCONFIG are system management tools.

NO.15 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of
the owner?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The term malware refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including
spyware.
Malware is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.
Answer D is incorrect. Stealware is associated with Web bugs or spyware.
It is used by Web sites to affiliate marketing programs. Stealware attributes can be present in
peer-to-peer software applications. Spyware, adware, and stealware are similar types of malicious
code. Some Websites are advertised as free and allow information to be downloaded.
However, a pop-up window with a disclaimer should appear.
The disclaimer discloses information of possible charges or rerouting of the Web site. The users
should read the disclaimer to learn what charges are applicable before clicking the advertisement.
Otherwise, they will be liable to pay a large sum of money. The working procedure of stealware is
shown in the figure below:
Answer A is incorrect. Shareware is software designed to use freely or for a limited period available
on the Internet. After completing the given time, the user can either purchase it or legally remove it.
These types of products are usually offered either with certain features only available when the user
has purchased the product, or as a full version but for a limited trial period of time.
Answer C is incorrect. Freeware is computer software that can be used without paying for it.

NO.16 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Sound cards are built-in to the motherboard. Sound card enables the computer to output sound to
audio devices, as well as accept input from a microphone. Most modern computers have sound
cards built-in to the motherboard, though it is common for a user to install a separate sound card as
an upgrade.
Answer D is incorrect. CD- ROM is a device used for reading data from a CD. This device is not built-
in to the mother board.
Answer B is incorrect. Mouse is a pointing device that detects two dimensional motion relative to its
supporting surface. This device is not built-in to the mother board.
Answer A is incorrect. Joystick is a device mostly used in gaming. It consists of a handheld stick that
pivots around one end, to detect angles in two or three dimensions.

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Exam Code: JK0-019
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 637 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one
network device and not the rest of the network?
A. Bus
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following sizes is the fixed cell length in ATM?
A. 8 bytes
B. 53 bytes
C. 64 kilobytes
D. 128 kilobytes
Answer: B

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NO.3 Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access
the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a
network?
A. RAS
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. ICA
Answer: C

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NO.5 Joe, a technician, is configuring ports on a switch. He turns off auto-negotiation and sets the port
speed to 1000 Mbps. A user s PC is no longer able to access the network.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The user s NIC does not support 1Gbps
B. The switch is not compatible with 1000Mbps.
C. The user's NIC does not support 100Mbps.
D. Joe needs to restart the DNS server.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network?
A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider.
B. Create a list of requirements and constraints.
C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar.
D. Choose the correct operating system version.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?
A. A username and PIN
B. A username and password
C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card
D. A username, password, and key fob number
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following network scanners detects and sends out alerts for malicious network activity?
A. Packet sniffers
B. IDS
C. Port scanners
D. IPS
Answer: B

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NO.9 Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with
Internet access.
Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address?
A. QoS
B. POP3
C. PAT
D. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.10 Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company s LAN. This
upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements,
bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning
process?
A. Conduct a vulnerability scan
B. Establish a network baseline
C. Conduct traffic analysis
D. Conduct a risk assessment
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following network appliances would facilitate an even amount of traffic hitting each web
server?
A. Load balancer
B. VPN concentrator
C. Proxy server
D. Content filter
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company has only three laptops that connect to their wireless network. The company is currently
using WEP encryption on their wireless network. They have noticed unauthorized connections on their
WAP and want to secure their wireless connection to prevent this.
Which of the following security measures would BEST secure their wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Change the encryption method to WPA
B. Limit the DHCP scope to only have three addresses total
C. Enable the SSID broadcast
D. Enable and configure MAC filtering
E. Change the broadcast channel to a less commonly used channel
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which of the following TCP/IP and OSI model layers retransmits a TCP packet if it is not received
successfully at its destination?
A. The transport OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
B. The transport OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
C. The network OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
D. The network OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
Answer: A

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NO.14 Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B

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NO.15 Two duplicate pieces of equipment can be used in conjunction for which of the following purposes?
(Select TWO)
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Reduce latency
D. Wi-MAX
E. CARP
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP
address provided through DHCP?
A. DNS suffixes
B. Leases
C. Static IP addressing
D. Reservations
Answer: B

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NO.17 Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does
not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish
this?
A. MAC filtering
B. SSL VPN
C. PPPoE
D. WPA Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.18 Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity.
Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity.?
A. Behavioral Based IDS
B. Signature Based IDS
C. Behavioral Based IPS
D. Signature Based IPS
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial
cable?
A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9
Answer: D

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NO.20 The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BI0-112
Exam Name: COGNOS (Cognos 8 BI Author v2)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1
billion. What calculation is used to create this filter?
A.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue] for Product line)>1000000000 Application = After auto aggregation
B.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue])>1000000000 Scope = Product line
C.Summary filter as: [Revenue]>1000000000 Scope = Product line
D.Summary filter as: ([Revenue] for Product line>1000000000) Application = After auto aggregation
Answer:C

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NO.2 In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A.To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B.So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C.To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D.So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer:A

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NO.3 In Report Studio, based on the crosstab below, which of the following is true?
A.Sales territory is a parent to Quantity and Revenue.
B.Quantity and Revenue have a parent-child relationship.
C.Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
D.Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
Answer:A

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NO.4 In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the
author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?
A.Add a Static Choice
B.Specify a Default Selection
C.Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D.Change the Required property to No
Answer:B

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NO.5 In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A.They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B.They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C.They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D.They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer:B

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